IIT JEE 2010

Poor man’s IIT coach in Time’s Best of Asia list

2010-05-18T04:31:00.000-07:00

Super 30, the Patna-based institute which has been coaching poor students for IITs, has found a place in Time magazine’s list of Best of Asia 2010.

Time magazine has described Super 30 as the Best Cram School in its list. “Last year, 30 of them came from one coaching centre in Patna, capital of the impoverished north Indian state of Bihar. That may not seem like many, but for the Super 30 centre it’s a pass rate of 100%,” the magazine said in its latest issue.

“What makes that feat even more remarkable is that these students are the poorest of the poor, who would otherwise never be able to afford full-time coaching,” it added.

The institute’s director-cum-founder Anand Kumar was thrilled by the latest recognition showered on his efforts. A student enrolled in Super 30 gets full scholarships, including accommodation and food.

The institute has become so popular that every year, thousands of students make a beeline for getting an entry into it. They now have to pass a competitive test just to get into Super 30, and then commit themselves to a year of 16-hour study every day. Since 2003, 182 of a total 210 students have made it to one of the IITs.

Time magazine said the project has even won the notice of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh who met Mr Kumar in February to hear his plan to launch a national programme for talented rural children. “In a country that has struggled to offer those students even basic education, Super 30 is an example of what’s possible when human potential is tapped,” the magazine said. The institute was started by Mr Kumar along with Bihar’s Additional Director-General of Police Abhayanand in 2002 in Patna. But two years ago, Abhayanand dissociated himself from the institute.

Courtesy: Economictimes.indiatimes.com

CORRECTIVE MEASURES FOR THE ERRORS ENCOUNTERED IN JEE-2010

2010-05-18T04:29:00.000-07:00

round 4.72 lakh candidates appeared in JEE 2010 on April 11, 2010. Certain errors in the question papers as well as in the ORS came to light immediately. The IITs sincerely regret the hardships that the candidates may have faced during the examination. The Joint Admissions Board held an emergency meeting in New Delhi on Sunday, 2nd May 2010 to arrive at appropriate corrective measures.
The Board observed unanimously that the situation does not warrant the holding of any re-examination and that the remedial measures outlined below will adequately redress the concerns of students arising out of the present situation:

Error 1: The subject headings Physics and Mathematics in the ORS are interchanged.
Corrective Measure: Each ORS (both for Paper 1 & Paper 2) will be evaluated in two ways (sequential question number-wise and subject headings-wise). In each case the higher score of the two evaluations will be taken as the candidate's score. Should one of the ways of evaluating lead to a mark below the minimum qualifying mark in one of the subjects, the other way will be deemed to be the ‘higher’ of the two scores.

Error 2: Question 44 in the Mathematics section of Paper 1 in code 4 of the Hindi version was not printed.
Corrective Measure: The ORS of the candidates who were given Code 4 of the Hindi version of the Question Paper 1 will be evaluated omitting Question 44 and the overall score for the Mathematics section of Paper 1 of those candidates will be appropriately scaled.

Error 3: The Instructions on “Question Paper Format and Marking Scheme” for section IV in the Hindi version of Paper 2 was wrongly printed. Each question in this section was shown to carry 3 marks instead of 8.
Corrective Measure: Each question of section IV of Paper 2 will be evaluated for 8 marks.

Error 4: In a few cases the question paper contained two unreadable pages and two partially readable pages in the Physics section of Paper 1.
Corrective Measure: Since the registration numbers of these candidates have been taken note of at the time of the examination, their ORS will be evaluated omitting the unreadable questions and their scores for the Physics section of Paper 1 will then be appropriately scaled.

The Joint Admissions Board decided to implement the above measures and to continue to monitor the situation till the process of Admission to IITs/ IT BHU and ISM Dhanbad through JEE 2010 is completed.

Courtesy: http://jee.iitd.ac.in

Kerala Entrance Result 2010 : Rank List

2010-05-18T04:27:00.000-07:00

The Results are announced on 17 May 2010 at 10:30 AM

CLICK HERE FOR RESULT

The Kerala Engg/Medical Entrance (KEAM) Exam Results 2010 announced today at www.keralaresults.nic.in and www.cee-kerala.org
The Keral Entrance Exam KEAM 2010 exam results is also available on your GPRS enabled mobile phone.
Just log on to www.cee.kerala.gov.in/wap and enter your roll no and get ur results.
And some other ways easy ways to find the kerala entranc exam results.
Call from BSNL phones: to 155300 to know results.
Call to the following no: 0471-2115054 or 2115098
Kerala Engineering – Medical Entrance Exam Results

The total number of seats to be reckoned for this purpose will be the seats available as on the date of declaration of the results of the Medical Entrance Examination in May 2010. The Seven-fold rank stipulation will not be applicable to special reservation seats coming under Clause 5.2.11(i) below. (But the minimum mark stipulation of MCI is applicable to these seats also.)

There will be four separate rank lists for:

i. Engineering Courses
ii. Architecture Course
iii. Medical and Agricultural Courses
iv. BAMS Course

The Kerala Entrance Exam Results Rank List(s) published by the CEE shall not be utilized by any person/institution/ authority other than CEE for the purpose of admission to any Professional Course(s), without prior written permission of the Government of Kerala.
(b) The rank list for Engineering courseswill be prepared on the basis of the total marks secured by the candidates in Paper-I (Physics & Chemistry) and Paper-II (Mathematics) of the Engineering Entrance Examination.

The rank lists for admission to B. Arch. Course will be prepared by giving equal weightage to the score obtained in the ‘National Aptitude Test in Architecture’ (NATA) and to the marks/grade obtained in the Qualifying Examination by the candidate (As per guidelines of the Council of Architecture, India).

Note:

1. Marks obtained by the candidate in the National Aptitude Test in Architecture (NATA) out of 200 will be added to the total marks/*grades secured by the candidate in the Qualifying Examination computed out of 200. The Rank list will be prepared based on the total marks obtained out of 400, computed as above (If *grades are awarded to candidates in their Qualifying Examination, it will be converted to equivalent marks for this purpose).

2. Candidates to be considered for inclusion in the rank list for allotment to B. Arch. course in all institutions including private Self-financing Collegeshave to appear for ‘NATA’ and secure minimum score as prescribed by COA. [Refer Clause 6.2.3 (b)]

(d) The rank list for Medical/Agricultural courses will be prepared on the basis of the total marks obtained in Paper I (Chemistry & Physics) and Paper II (Biology) of the Medical Entrance Examination.

(e) Rank List for Ayurveda Course : A separate rank list for Ayurveda Course will be prepared based on the Medical Rank list. For candidates who have taken Sanskrit as their second language in Higher Secondary or equivalent examination, additional 10 marks will be added to the total marks secured by them in the Medical Entrance Examination (Paper I and Paper II together) for the preparation of Ayurveda rank list. For others, the total marks in the Medical Entrance Examination alone will be considered.

The rank lists for Engineering, Medical/Agriculture, Ayurveda, and Architecture Courses will be published separately. The resultswill be available in the website “www.cee-kerala.org” and in other websites to be notified by the CEE. 9.7.8 The results and rank lists of the Engineering and Medical Entrance Examinations will be declared on or before 25th May 2010. 9.7.9 Candidates seeking admission to Architecture course have to appear for the NATAtest as mentioned under Clauses 1.4, 6.2.3, 9.2.7 & 9.7.5.

Such candidates should submit :

(i) A self-attested photocopy of the mark list of their qualifying examination, (ii) an attested copy of the original ‘NATA’ score sheet and (iii) a filled-in Proforma to be downloaded from the website of the CEE (www.cee-kerala.org), to the CEE so as to reach him on or before 05.06.2010. Detailed notification in this regard will be issued by the CEE, in due course. The rank list for Architecture will be published after this date. The marks of the qualifying examination and NATA score received on or before this date alone will be considered for preparing the Architecture Rank list. The rank list so published will be final and the marks received subsequently will not be considered under any circumstances. The CEE will not be responsible for any delay in publication of the result of the qualifying examination. 9.7.10 Validity of the rank lists : The rank lists published by the Commissioner for Entrance Examinations will be valid till 31.10.2010.

Kerala Commissioner for Entrance Exam (CEE), on June 12, 2009 has published the result of Kerala Medical Engineering Architecture Medical 2009, popularly known as KEAM. The entrance exam was conducted form May 25 to 28, 2009. All those students who have appeared the exam and are eagerly waiting for the results can log in the website: http://www.cee-kerala.org/ Kerala Commissioner for Entrance Exam (CEE), on behalf of the Government of Kerala, conducts the Kerala Medical Architecture Engineering Medical (KEAM) entrance exam. It is conducted for admission into the first year of Medical / Agriculture / Veterinary / Engineering / Architecture (admission to architectural program is done on the basis of NATA score) courses offered in various colleges across Kerala.

Category of Exam :

Medical / Agriculture / Veterinary / Engineering / Architecture – MBBS, BDS, B Pharma, B Sc (Nursing), B Sc (MLT), BAMS, BHMS, BSMS (Siddha), B Sc Nursing (Ayurveda), B Pharm (Ayurveda), B P T (Physiotherapy), B Sc Hons. (Agriculture), B F Sc (Fisheries), B Sc Hons (Forestry), B V Sc & AH, B Tech (including B Tech (Agricultural Engineering) / B Tech (Dairy Sc & Tech), B Arch

AIEEE 2010 Solutions, Answer Key, Cutoff and Results

2010-04-24T10:59:00.000-07:00

AIEEE 2010

AIEEE 2010 Answer Key

http://entrance.icbse.com/aieee-answer-key/

AIEEE 2010 Solutions

http://entrance.icbse.com/aieee-solutions/

AIEEE 2010 Cutoff

http://entrance.icbse.com/aieee-cutoff/

AIEEE 2010 Analysis

http://www.icbse.com/2009/aieee-analysis/

AIEEE 2010 Results

http://results.icbse.com/aieee-result/

The eighth All India Engineering Entrance Examination (AIEEE) was held on 26th April' 2009. 9,62,119 candidates appeared, out of 10,10,061 candidates registered, for the examination at 1,460 centres located in 85 cities.

Contact:

Central Board of Secondary Education
PS 1-2, Institutional Area
IP Extension, Patparganj, Delhi 110 092 Ph: 011-22239177-80 Extn. 110, 151, 157
011-22246095, 22246087 Fax: 011-22246095, 22235775

IIT Indore Vacancies for Professors and Registrar

2010-03-11T00:17:00.000-08:00

Applications are invited from candidates for the following posts :

1. Professor

Pay Scale : Rs. 37400-67000(PB-4) with AGP of Rs. 10500/-

2. Associate Professor

Pay Scale : Rs. 37400-67000(PB-4) with AGP of Rs. 9500/-

3. Assistant Professor

Pay Scale : Rs. 15600-39100(PB-3) with AGP of Rs. 8000/-

4. Registrar

Pay Scale : Rs. 37400-67000(PB-4) with AGP of Rs. 10000/-

For further details regarding Educational qualification, experience etc. please visit website www.iitb.ac.in and look under ‘Recruitment’ for the application form.

Completed application may be sent to the Convener, IIT Indore Cell, C/o. Indian Institute of Technology Bombay, Powai, Mumbai-400076 on or before 09.04.2010

Tips to Crack the IIT-JEE

2010-03-10T08:43:00.000-08:00

Tips to ace the IIT-JEE

Approximately four lakh students are expected to appear for the IIT-JEE 2010, scheduled for April 11, 2010. My advice to students is to avoid selective study in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics. This is because with the number of questions being more in objective type papers and with intermingling of their underlying concepts, all topics are likely
to be covered.

The syllabus is almost completely based on Class XI and XII. The JEE syllabus of Class XI and XII contributes about 45 per cent and 55 per cent of IIT-JEE question papers respectively. When you are preparing all the chapters of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics, stress may be given, in particular, on the following topics.

Mathematics: Quadratic equations and expressions, complex numbers, probability, vectors, matrices in algebra; circle, parabola, hyperbola in coordinate geometry; functions, limits, continuity and differentiability, application of derivatives, definite integral in calculus.

Physics: Mechanics, fluids, heat and thermodynamics, waves and sound, capacitors and electrostatics, magnetics,
electromagnetic induction, optics and modern physics.

Chemistry: Qualitative analysis, coordination chemistry and chemical bonding in inorganic chemistry, electrochemistry, chemical equilibrium in physical chemistry and organic chemistry complete as a topic.

Planning is the key
The way to prepare and deal with the study pressure is proper planning and its implementation.

Divide the time available on the three subjects.
Further detail out the chapter-wise, topic-wise time schedule.
Make summary notes/ points to remember of all the concepts topic/ chapter-wise and flag the questions with twist, intermingling of concepts requiring analytical skills.

This will help in quick revision, a couple of days before or even on the eve of the examination.

The right approach
Students, who are simultaneously preparing for Class XII board exams and IIT-JEE, should start concentrating on Class XII and the corresponding IIT-JEE chapters around 21 days before board examination. However, the flame should be kept burning even for Class XI chapters by way of revision till the start of the board examinations. After the board examinations, focused and concentrated revision of both Class XI and XII subjects will have to be undertaken.

The right approach for those appearing for the first time or second (last) time is to stick to one source and not to refer to multitude of books/ study material available in the market. For example it is sufficient to go through study-packages,
IIT-JEE archives, review-packages, work-books, Grand Masters Package/ Equivalent, AITS/AIITS series etc,
supplied by FIITJEE if the student is enrolled in any of its programmes. To reap benefits, the students, throughout preparation period, should remain focused with a positive attitude to study with utmost concentration.

It is quality of time spent and not the quantity alone. A short break of 5 to 10 minutes every one to one-and-a-half hours of serious study is advisable. Total relaxation during the break should charge the batteries for another intensive spell of serious study.

Importance of practice sessions
To keep focused for better results, students should strictly follow a well-planned time schedule. During practice sessions speed in working out the questions should be developed. This is a natural byproduct if the student has attempted questions from basic principles in the initial stages. However, it is never too late to practice it. This strategy of solving questions from fundamentals will induce in the student a parallel thinking process so very necessary to increase and master analytical skills with conceptual understanding.

The proof of the pudding, however, is in the eating. Progress made must be checked by solving quizzes/ mock test papers on a regular basis. The student should aim at 100 per cent hit rate ie all attempted questions are correct. This will ensure a competitive edge over others who will be left behind due to negative marking. Speed and accuracy will also allow finishing the paper ahead of time, leaving some time for revision.

Keep mind and body fit
Asanas, pranayama and meditation (in that order) every day in the morning and/or evening will help to develop inner calm and power of concentration needed for success. This will ultimately be of immense help on the test day. A minimum of at least 5 to 6 hours of sleep daily is necessary to keep the mind and body fit.

Facing the exam
The strategy in the examination hall will be to keep cool, to have faith and to harness the examination temperament built during planned preparation. It is advisable to reach the examination centre at least 20 minutes early. A few deep breaths will ward off nervousness. Instructions given in the question papers should be read and followed very carefully. The student should not spend more than 45 minutes on any of the subjects in the first attempt. He should fix priorities after a concentrated quick reading of the paper and start with answering the question he knows best and move progressively to ones in ascending order of difficulty.

Questions with no negative marks must be attempted. The 45-minute cycle should be repeated for the other two subjects. Thereafter the student should come back to the three sections for attempting left out questions, conceptually with well-reasoned logic and for overall revision during the last 45 minutes. Even if some segment/ section appears to be tough, one should keep cool since it is the relative performance which will count.

Remain positive
The IIT-JEE exam tests one's understanding in application of concepts and analytical skills vis-a-vis mechanical/ blind application of formulae/ theory. Temporary set-backs or poor performance during practice in some quiz or mock test paper should not discourage and one should march onwards with greater will and determination.

The success in the IIT-JEE examination is directly proportionate to the number of problems solved independently and preferably by more than one method. To raise the bar and to develop muscles, the weight is to be lifted by the student himself.

(Rediff)

AIMA MAT Exam Notification and Application Form

2010-03-03T08:56:00.002-08:00

AIMA MAT May 2010 Exam Notification And Application Form

Name of the activity : Management Aptitude Test (MAT)
Mode of Test (How to take the test) : Candidate can choose any one of the two options to take the test: Paper-Based Test
OR
Computer Based Test.

Test Date (For Paper- Based Test) : 02 May 2010 (Sunday)
Test Timing (For Paper- Based Test):10.00am-12.30pm
Test Date (Computer Based Test) :08 May 2010 (Saturday) onwards

Test Timing (Computer Based Test) :In different Time slots at specific test venues; subject to number of candidates registering for Computer Based Test.

Eligibility:

Graduates in any discipline. Final year students of Graduate Courses can also apply

How to apply:

Candidate can choose any one of the following modes to apply.

Obtain Form with MAT Bulletin/CD against cash payment of Rs 980/- from listed branches of Bank of Baroda, listed Study Centres of AIMA.

Obtain crossed Demand Draft (DD) of Rs 1050/- in favour of ‘All India Management Association’ payable at Delhi from any Bank. Register online at website www.aima-ind.org along with the DD details. Detailed procedure is given on the website link.

Register online at website link www.aima-ind.org with Credit Card payment. Detailed procedure is given on the website link.

(Note: No individual sale by AIMA at AIMA, New Delhi)

Sale Counters :

1. Select Branches of Bank of Baroda(click here)
2. Select AIMA Study Centre(click here)
List of Participating Management Institutes :List of Participating MIs (click here)

Important Dates

Last Date For sale of Forms : 07 April 2010 (Wednesday)
Last Date for submission of filled in Registration Forms at AIMA, New Delhi:10 April 2010 (Saturday)

Last Date For Online Registration:09 April 2010 (Friday)
Last Date for submission of filled in Online Registration Forms at AIMA, New Delhi:12 April 2010 (Monday)

Test Centre City (Click here):
* Test Centre City list is provided in the bulletin. Test Venues for Paper-Based Test and Computer Based Test are different.
* The Paper-Based Test will take place only on one day i.e., 02 May 2010 at one time slot i.e., 10.00am-12.30pm, whereas the Computer Based Test will take place from 08 May 2010 onwards in different time slots.
* If the number of candidates registered for Computer Based Test is few/limited, these candidates have to appear for the Paper-Based Test on 02 May 2010 only.

One candidate can appear only for one date for the May 2010 MAT.

Admit Card:

All provisionally registered candidates can down load their Admit Card from AIMA website link: www.aima-ind.org/mat_centre.aspx 7 days before the Paper Based test date i.e., with effect from 24 April 2010 (Saturday).
Specific Admit Card will be generated both for the candidates opted for the Paper-Based Test and for the Computer Based Test.
Admit Card would be having Candidate Name, Form No, Roll NO, Test Date, Test Time and Test Venue Address. Candidate has to strictly follow the date and time allotted to them in the case of Computer Based Test.

Candidates applied for Computer Based Test and who have been permitted to appear for the Computer Based Test; have to down load the Admit Card 7 days before the Paper Based Test date i.e., with effect from 24 April 2010 (Saturday) from AIMA website. Candidates accessing the website the earliest can choose the Date and Time of his/her choice subject to availability. Those who have not opted the date and time slot for 4-5 days; will be automatically allotted date and time slot by the system. No request for change of date and time slot can be entertained.

Application Forms and Admit Card Click Here

AIMA B-School Participation Registration (Online) for MAT May

2010-03-03T08:56:00.001-08:00

AIMA
B-School Participation Registration(Online) for MAT May 2010

Management Aptitude Test (MAT) is a standardised test being administered since 1988 to facilitate Business Schools (B-Schools) to screen candidates for admission to MBA and allied programmes. Govt. of India, Ministry of HRD approved MAT as a national level test in 2003. Any B-School - national or international - can consider MAT Score as an admission input based on the Score Cards issued to the candidates.

The scheme of MAT offers value added services to Indian B-Schools considering MAT Score for admission to approved post graduate management programmes. Such B-Schools can participate in MAT administration by including their notifications in the MAT Bulletin.

Introduction

Package of Services

Tariff

Salient Aspects

Role of B-School

Schedule

Contact for Clarification

Register Online

Frequently Asked Questions

MAT Examination Pattern and Syllabus

2010-03-03T08:51:00.000-08:00

MAT Examination Pattern and Syllabus

Management Aptitude Test or MAT is the test conducted by All India Management Testing Service for entering into MBA or equivalent post graduate programmes.

There are five papers in MAT:

Paper 1 : Language Comprehension
Paper 2 : Mathematical Skills
Paper 3 : Data Analysis
Paper 4 : Intelligence & Critical Re asoning
Paper 5 : Indian & Global Environment Section

Paper Pattern:

Total Questions: 200
Time: 150 minutes

Marks allocation:

Correct attempt: 1 mark
Incorrect attempt: Negative marking not specified

Section	Questions
Reading Comprehension	40
Data Interpretation/Data sufficiency	40
Quantitative Aptitude	40
Logical and Critical reasoning	40
General Awareness	40

NOTE: Scores are based on the first four sections only, the decision to consider scores of the General Awareness section are left to the institutes.

GATE Instrumentation Engineering (IE) Solved Paper 2010

2010-02-25T09:30:00.000-08:00

1.A beam of unpolarized light is first passed through a linear polarizer and then through a quarter-wave plate. The emergent beam is
(A) unpolarized (B) linearly polarized
(C) circularly polarized (D) elliptically polarized
2.A signal with frequency components 50Hz, 100Hz and 200Hz only is sampled at 150samples/s. The ideally reconstructed signal will have frequency component(s) of
(A) 50Hz only (B) 75Hz only
(C) 50Hz and 75Hz (D) 50Hz, 75Hz and 100Hz
3. The subroutine SBX given below is executed by an 8085 processor. The value in the accumulator immediately after the execution of the subroutine will be:
SBX : MVI A, 99h
ADI 11h
MOV C,A
RET
(A) 00h (B) 11h (C) 99h (D) AAh
4.H(z) is a discrete rational transfer function. To ensure that both H(z) and its inverse are stable its
(A) poles must be inside the unit circle and zeros must be outside the unit circle
(B) poles and zeros must be inside the unit circle
(C) poles and zeros must be outside the unit circle
(D) poles must be outside the unit circle and zeros should be inside the unit circle
5. The output voltage of a transducer with an output resistance of 10kΩ is connected to an amplifier. The minimum input resistance of the amplifier so thathe error in recording the transducer output does not exceed 2% is
(A) 10kΩ (B) 49kΩ (C) 490kΩ (D) 1.2MΩ

Download this Full Paper Now..

Click here for Answer Keys

GATE Mechanical Engineering (ME) Question Paper 2010

2010-02-25T02:53:00.000-08:00

1. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Grashof’s rule states that for a planar crank-rocker four bar mechanism, the
sum of the shortest and longest link lengths cannot be less than the sum of
the remaining two link lengths.
(B) Inversions of a mechanism are created by fixing different links one at a time.
(C) Geneva mechanism is an intermittent motion device
(D) Gruebler’s criterion assumes mobility of a planar mechanism to be one
2. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by
(A) decreasing center distance between gear pair
(B) decreasing module
(C) decreasing pressure angle
(D) increasing number of gear teeth
3. For the stability of a floating body, under the influence of gravity alone, which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Metacentre should be below centre of gravity
(B) Metacentre should be above centre of gravity
(C) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the same horizontal line
(D) Metacentre and centre of gravity must lie on the same vertical line
4. The maximum velocity of a one-dimensional incompressible fully developed viscous flow, between two fixed parallel plates, is 6ms-1. The mean velocity (in ms-1) of the flow is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
5. A phenomenon is modeled using n dimensional variables with k primary dimensions. The number of non-dimensional variables is
(A) k (B) n (C) n-k (D) n+k

6.One kilogram of water at room temperature is brought into contact with a high temperature thermal reservoir. The entropy change of the universe is
(A) equal to entropy change of the reservoir
(B) equal to entropy change of water
(C) equal to zero
(D) always positive
7. A hydraulic turbine develops 1000kW power for a head of 40m. If the head is reduced to 20m, the power developed (in kW) is
(A) 177 (B) 354 (C) 500 (D) 707
8. The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is
(A) fatigue strength (B) work hardening
(C) fracture strength (D) elastic constant
9. In a gating system, the ratio 1:2:4 represents
(A) sprue base area: runner area: ingate area
(B) pouring basin area: ingate area: runner area
(C) sprue base area: ingate area: casting area
(D) runner area: ingate area: casting area

Download Full Paper Now

IIT JEE Study Plan | Chemistry

2009-12-24T09:09:00.001-08:00

IIT JEE Study Plan of Chemistry

IIT JEE 2010 entrance exam is to be held on coming days. So it is necessary to make the schedule of study for different subjects which will help you to prepare in suitable discipline.

Study Plan for Polymers
(Sections in Chapter - Jauhar)

Day 1

16.1 Polymers
16.2 Classification of Polymers
16.3 General methods of Polymerisation

Day 2

16.4 Mechanism of addition Polymerisation
16.5 Copolymers
16.6 Natural rubber

Day 3

16.7 Condensation of Polymers
16.8 Molecular masses of Polymers
16.9 Biopolymers
16.10 Biodegradable Polymers

Day 4

16.11 Some Commercially important Polymers

Day 5

Practice problems 16.1 to 16.3
Conceptual Questions with Answers: 10
Revision Exercises: Very Short Answer questions 1 to 15

Day 6

Revision Exercises: Very Short Answer questions 16 to 26

Day 7

Revision Exercises: Short Answer Questions 1 to 30

Day 8

Revision Exercises: Short Answer Questions 31 to 53

Day 9

Competition File: Objective Questions: Multiple choice 22
Fill in the blanks: 10
True or False: 10

Day 10

Concept Revision

Days 11 to 20

Test paper question solving

Study Plan for Biomolecules
(Sections in Chapter - Jauhar)

Day 1

17.1 The Cell
17.2 Energy cycle
17.3 Carbohydrates

Day 2

17.4 Monosaccharides

Day 3

17.5 Disaccharides
17.6 Polysaccharides
17.7 Important functions of carbohydrates

Day 4

17.8 Aminoacids
17.9 Structure of alpha-Amino acids
17.10 Peptides and proteins
17.11 Proteins

Day 5

17.12 Classification of proteins
17.13 Structure of proteins
17.14 Forces that stabilize protein structures
17.15 Native states and denaturation of proteins

Day 6

17.16 Enzymes
17.17 Nucleic acids
17.18 Structure of DNA

Day 7

17.19 Lipids
17.20 Hormones
17.21 Vitamins

Day 8

Conceptual Questions with Answers: 23
Revision Exercises: Very Short Answer questions 1 to 20

Day 9

Revision Exercises: Very Short Answer questions 21 to 43
Revision Exercises: Short Answer Questions 1 to 10

Day 10

Revision Exercises: Short Answer Questions 11 to 40
Revision Period

Day 11

Revision Exercises: Short Answer Questions 41 to 60

Day 12

Revision Exercises: Short Answer Questions 61 to 80

Day 13

Competition File:Objective Questions: Multiple choice: 27

Day 14

Fill in the blanks: 14
True or False: 10

Day 15 to 20

Concept revision and test paper question solving

IIT JEE Study Plan | Physics

2009-12-24T09:07:00.000-08:00

IIT JEE 2010 Study Plan | Physics

IIT JEE 2010 entrance exam is to be held on coming days. So it is necessary to make the schedule of study for different subjects which will help you to prepare in suitable discipline.

Study Plan for Photoelectric Effect and Wave- particle Duality

Sections of the chapter
42.1 Photon theory of light
42.2 Photoelectric effect
42.3 Matter waves

Day 1

42.1 Photon theory of light
42.2 Photoelectric effect
42.3 Matter waves

Day 2

Worked out examples 1 to 10

Day 3

WOE 11 to 13
Exercises 1 to 5

Day 4

Exercises 6 to 15

Day 5

Exercises 16 to 25

Day 6

Exercises 26 to 35

Day 7

Objective I and II, Questions for short answer

Day 8

Concept review and Formula review

Study Plan for Bohr's Model and Physics of Atom

Day 1

43.1 Early atomic models
43.2 Hydrogen spectra
43.3 Difficulties with Rutherford Model
43.4 Bohr's model

Day 2

Worked out examples 1 to 5
Exercises 1 to 5

Day 3

43.5 Limitations of Bohr's model
43.6 The wave function of an electron
43.7 Quantum mechanics of the hydrogen atom

Day 4

WOE 6 to 10
Exercises 6 to 10

Day 5

43.8 Nomenclature in atomic physics
43.9 Laser
WOE 11 to 15

Day 6

WOE 16 to 19
exercises 11 to 15

Day 7

Exercises 16 to 25

Day 8

Exercises 26 to 35

Day 9

Exercises 36 to 46

Day 10

Objective I and II
Questions for short answers 1 to 10

Day 11

Concept REview

Day 12

Formula Review

Days 13 to 20

Test paper problem solving

Study Plan for X-Rays

Day 1

44.1 Production of X-rays
44.2 Continuous and characteristic X-rays
44.3 Soft and Hard X-rays
Worked out examples 1 to 3

Day 2

44.4 Moseley's law
44.5 Bragg's law
44.6 Properties and uses of X-rays
WOE 3 to 6

Day 3

Exercises 1 to 10

Day 4

Exercises 11 to 20

Day5

Exercises 21 t0 27

Day 6

Objectives I and II

Day 7

Questions for short answer
Concept review
Formula review

Study Plan for Nucleus

Day 1

44.1 Production of X-rays
44.2 Continuous and characteristic X-rays
44.3 Soft and Hard X-rays
Worked out examples 1 to 3

Day 2

44.4 Moseley's law
44.5 Bragg's law
44.6 Properties and uses of X-rays
WOE 3 to 6

Day 3

Exercises 1 to 10

Day 4

Exercises 11 to 20

Day5

Exercises 21 to 27

Day 6

Objectives I and II

Day 7

Questions for short answer
Concept review
Formula review

IIT JEE Last Year Question Papers | Previous Years

2009-12-18T23:06:00.000-08:00

IIT-JEE 2009 (including solutions) : Paper 1 (328kb) | Paper 2 (306kb)
IIT-JEE 2008 (including solutions) : Paper 1 (385kb) | Paper 2 (432kb)
IIT-JEE 2007 (including solutions) : Paper 1 (298kb) | Paper 2 (306kb)
IIT-JEE 2006 (including solutions) : Paper 1 (871kb)
IIT-JEE 2005 (including solutions) : Paper 1 (1.19mb)
IIT-JEE 2004 : Paper 1 (1.62mb) | Solutions (1.04mb)
IIT-JEE 2003 : Paper 1 (1.34mb) | Solutions (794kb)
IIT-JEE 2002 : Paper 1 (1.51mb) | Solutions (797kb)
IIT-JEE 1997 : Paper 1 (490kb)

Source : www.icbse.com/2009/iitjee-last-year-question-papers-solutions

IIT JEE 2010 Exam: Aptitude Test Syllabus

2009-11-26T23:44:00.001-08:00

SYLLABUS FOR APTITUDE TEST FOR B.Arch. and B.Des. PROGRAMMES

Freehand drawing: This would comprise of simple drawing depicting the total object in its right form and proportion, surface texture, relative location and details of its component parts in appropriate scale. Common domestic or day-to-day life usable objects like furniture, equipment, etc., from memory.

Geometrical drawing: Exercises in geometrical drawing containing lines, angles, triangles, quadrilaterals, polygons, circles etc. Study of plan (top view), elevation (front or side views) of simple solid objects like prisms, cones, cylinders, cubes, splayed surface holders etc.

Three-dimensional perception: Understanding and appreciation of three-dimensional forms with building elements, colour, volume and orientation. Visualization through structuring objects in memory.

Imagination and aesthetic sensitivity: Composition exercise with given elements. Context mapping. Creativity check through innovative uncommon test with familiar objects. Sense of colour grouping or application.

Architectural awareness: General interest and awareness of famous architectural creations – both national and international, places and personalities (architects, designers etc.) in the related domain

Candidates are advised to bring geometry box sets, pencils, erasers and colour pencils or crayons for the Aptitude Test.

VITEEE 2010 | Important Dates

2009-11-26T23:35:00.000-08:00

Date of Advertisement : December 13, 2009

Date of Issuing the VITEEE 2010 Application Forms : December 14, 2009

Last Date for Submitting the Forms : February 20, 2010

VITEEE-2010 Entrance Exam : April 17, 2010

Commencement of Classes : July 1st week, 2010

To obtain the B.Tech. admission application form please send a DD for Rs.750/- (Rupees Seven Hundred and fifty only) in favour of "VIT University" payable at Vellore. The brochure and application form will be mailed you in the third week of December. The DD needs to be sent to

DR. E. JAMES JEBASEELAN SAMUEL
Admissions Officer
VIT University
Vellore-632 014,
Tamil Nadu, India.
Phone: + 91-416-220 2125,
220 2157, 220 2168
Fax: +91-416-224 5544, 224 0411
Email: admission[at]vit.ac.in

VITEEE 2010 Entrance Exam Notification

GATE: Computer Science (CS) Question Paper Year 2006

2009-11-24T09:40:00.000-08:00

Q.1 — Q.20 Carry One Mark Each
1. Consider the polynomial p(x) = a0 +a1x+a2×2 +a3×2, where a1 (- 0,Vi. The minimum number of multiplications needed to evaluate pon an input x is:
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 9

2. Let X,Y,Z be sets of sizes x, y and z respectively. LeQ.1 — Q.20 Carry One Mark Each
1. Consider the polynomial p(x) = a0 +a1x+a2×2 +a3×2, where a1 (- 0,Vi. The minimum number of multiplications needed to evaluate pon an input x is:
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 9

2. Let X,Y,Z be sets of sizes x, y and z respectively. Let W = XxY and E be the set of all subsets of W. The number of functions from Z to E is:
(A) Z2XY
(B) Zx2
(C) Z2XY
(D) 2XYZ

3. The set {1,2,3,5,7,8,91 under multiplication modulo 10 is not a group. Given below are four plausible reasons. Which one of them is false?
(A) It is not closed
(B) 2 does not have an inverse
(C) 3 does not have an inverse
(D) 8 does not have an inverse

4. A relation R is defined on ordered pairs of integers as follows: (x,y)R(u,v)if x < u andy> v. Then R is:
(A) Neither a Partial Order nor an Equivalence Relation
(B) A Partial Order but not a Total Order
(C) A Total Order
(D) An Equivalence Relation

5. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the timeto- live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header?
(A) Ensure packets reach destination within that time
(B) Discard packets that reach later than that time
(C) Prevent packets from looping indefinitely
(D) Limit the time for which a packet gets queued in intermediate routers.

6. Consider three CPU-intensive processes, which require 10, 20 and 30 time units and arrive at times 0, 2 and 6, respectively. How many context switches are needed if the operating system implements a shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm? Do not count the context switches at time zero and at the end.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

7. Consider the following grammar. Consider the following LR(0) items corresponding to the grammar above. Given the items above, which two of them will appear in the same set in the canonical sets-ofitems for the grammar?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) None of the above

9. A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal). Which one of the following is a legal program counter (all values in decimal)?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700

10. In a binary max heap containing n numbers, the smallest element can be found in time
(A) 0(n)
(B) O(logn)
(C) 0(loglogn)
(D) 0(1)

11. Consider a weighted complete graph Gon the vertex set {v1,v2 ,v} such that the weight of the edge (v,,v) is 2i-j. The weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is:
(A) n—i
(B) 2n—2
(C)
(D) 2

12. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is:
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Heap
(D) B-Tree

13. A scheme for storing binary trees in an array X is as follows. Indexing of X starts at 1 instead of 0. the root is stored at X[1]. For a node stored at X[i], the left child, if any, is stored in X[2i] and the right child, if any, in X[2i+1]. To be able to store any binary tree on nvertices the minimum size of X should be
(A) log2 n
(B) n
(C) 2n+1
(D) 2—1

14. Which one of the following in place sorting algorithms needs the minimum number of swaps?
(A) Quick sort
(B) Insertion sort
(C) Selection sort
(D) Heap sort

15. Consider the following C-program fragment in which i,j and nare integer variables. for (i = n,j = 0; i >0; i 1= 2,j +=i); Let val(j)denote the value stored in the variable jafter termination of the for loop. Which one of the following is true?
(A) val(j) = 8(logn)
(B) vaI(j)=8(fi)
(C) val(j)=8(n)
(D) val(j)= 8(nlogn)

16. Let S be an NP-complete problem and Q and R be two other problems not known to be in NP. Q is polynomial time reducible to S and S is polynomial-time reducible to R. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) R is NP-complete
(B) R is NP-hard
(C) Q is NP-complete
(D) Q is NP-hard

17. An element in an array X is called a leader if it is greater than all elements to the right of it in X. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array
(A) Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array
(B) Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array
(C) Solves it using divide and conquer in time 8(nlogn)
(D) Solves it in time 8(n2)

18. We are given a set X {x1 x} where x, = 2′. A sample S c Xis drawn by selecting each x,independently with probability p, =-.The expected value of the smallest number in sample S is:
(A)
(B) 2
(C)
(D) n

19. Let L1 {OnminOmnm>O1L {Onmin+mOmnm>O} and i = {jt n rnjn mflm 01. Which of these languages are NOT context free?
(A) L1 only
(B) L3 only
(C) L1 and L2
(D) L2 and L3

20. Consider the following log sequence of two transactions on a bank account, with initial balance 12000, that transfer 2000 to a mortgage payment and then apply a 5% interest.
1. T1 start
2. T1 B old= 1200 new= 10000
3. T1 M old=0 new=2000
4. T1 commit
5. T2start
6. T2 B old= 10000 new= 10500
7. T2 commit

Suppose the database system crashes just before log record 7 is written. When the system is restarted, which one statement is true of the recovery procedure?
(A) We must redo log record 6 to set B to 10500
(B) We must undo log record 6 to set B to 10000 and then redo log records 2 and 3
(C) We need not redo log records 2 and 3 because transaction Ti has committed
(D) We can apply redo and undo operations in arbitrary order because they are idempotent.

Q.21 — Q.75 Carry Two Marks Each

21. For each element in a set of size 2n,an unbiased coin is tossed. The 2ncoin tosses are independent. An element is chosen if the corresponding coin toss were head. The probability that exactly n elements are chosen is:
(A) 2n

22. Let E, F and G be finite sets.
Let X=(EflF)-(FflG) and Y=(E_(EflG))_(E_F). Which one of the following is true?
(A) XcY
(B) XDY
(C) X=Y
(D) X-Y≠OandY-X≠O

23. F is an nxn real matrix. b is an nxi real vector. Suppose there are two nxivectors, u and vsuch that u v,and Fu = b,Fv = b. Which one of the following statements is false?
(A) Determinant of F is zero
(B) There are an infinite number of solutions to Fx = b
(C) There is an x Osuch that Fx = 0
(D) F must have two identical rows

24. integers S, and ,r(S) is the set of integers obtained by applying permutation rto each element of S?
(A) (n-AUBAHB
(B) (A2 +B2)n2
(C) n!
(D) A fl B2/[A U B

25. Let S = {1,2,3 ,m},m>3. Let X1 X be subsets of S each of size 3. Define a function f from S to the set of natural numbers as, f(i)is the number of sets X that contain the element I. That is f (I)={jIE x7[. Then f(i)is:
(A) 3m
(B) 3n
(C) 2m+1
(D) 2n+1t W = XxY and E be the set of all subsets of W. The number of functions from Z to E is:
(A) Z2XY
(B) Zx2
(C) Z2XY
(D) 2XYZ

3. The set {1,2,3,5,7,8,91 under multiplication modulo 10 is not a group. Given below are four plausible reasons. Which one of them is false?
(A) It is not closed
(B) 2 does not have an inverse
(C) 3 does not have an inverse
(D) 8 does not have an inverse

4. A relation R is defined on ordered pairs of integers as follows: (x,y)R(u,v)if x <> v. Then R is:
(A) Neither a Partial Order nor an Equivalence Relation
(B) A Partial Order but not a Total Order
(C) A Total Order
(D) An Equivalence Relation

5. For which one of the following reasons does Internet Protocol (IP) use the timeto- live (TTL) field in the IP datagram header?
(A) Ensure packets reach destination within that time
(B) Discard packets that reach later than that time
(C) Prevent packets from looping indefinitely
(D) Limit the time for which a packet gets queued in intermediate routers.

6. Consider three CPU-intensive processes, which require 10, 20 and 30 time units and arrive at times 0, 2 and 6, respectively. How many context switches are needed if the operating system implements a shortest remaining time first scheduling algorithm? Do not count the context switches at time zero and at the end.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

7. Consider the following grammar. Consider the following LR(0) items corresponding to the grammar above. Given the items above, which two of them will appear in the same set in the canonical sets-ofitems for the grammar?
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) None of the above

9. A CPU has 24-bit instructions. A program starts at address 300 (in decimal). Which one of the following is a legal program counter (all values in decimal)?
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700

10. In a binary max heap containing n numbers, the smallest element can be found in time
(A) 0(n)
(B) O(logn)
(C) 0(loglogn)
(D) 0(1)

11. Consider a weighted complete graph Gon the vertex set {v1,v2 ,v} such that the weight of the edge (v,,v) is 2i-j. The weight of a minimum spanning tree of G is:
(A) n—i
(B) 2n—2
(C)
(D) 2

12. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is:
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Heap
(D) B-Tree

13. A scheme for storing binary trees in an array X is as follows. Indexing of X starts at 1 instead of 0. the root is stored at X[1]. For a node stored at X[i], the left child, if any, is stored in X[2i] and the right child, if any, in X[2i+1]. To be able to store any binary tree on nvertices the minimum size of X should be
(A) log2 n
(B) n
(C) 2n+1
(D) 2—1

14. Which one of the following in place sorting algorithms needs the minimum number of swaps?
(A) Quick sort
(B) Insertion sort
(C) Selection sort
(D) Heap sort

15. Consider the following C-program fragment in which i,j and nare integer variables. for (i = n,j = 0; i >0; i 1= 2,j +=i); Let val(j)denote the value stored in the variable jafter termination of the for loop. Which one of the following is true?
(A) val(j) = 8(logn)
(B) vaI(j)=8(fi)
(C) val(j)=8(n)
(D) val(j)= 8(nlogn)

16. Let S be an NP-complete problem and Q and R be two other problems not known to be in NP. Q is polynomial time reducible to S and S is polynomial-time reducible to R. Which one of the following statements is true?
(A) R is NP-complete
(B) R is NP-hard
(C) Q is NP-complete
(D) Q is NP-hard

17. An element in an array X is called a leader if it is greater than all elements to the right of it in X. The best algorithm to find all leaders in an array
(A) Solves it in linear time using a left to right pass of the array
(B) Solves it in linear time using a right to left pass of the array
(C) Solves it using divide and conquer in time 8(nlogn)
(D) Solves it in time 8(n2)

18. We are given a set X {x1 x} where x, = 2′. A sample S c Xis drawn by selecting each x,independently with probability p, =-.The expected value of the smallest number in sample S is:
(A)
(B) 2
(C)
(D) n

19. Let L1 {OnminOmnm>O1L {Onmin+mOmnm>O} and i = {jt n rnjn mflm 01. Which of these languages are NOT context free?
(A) L1 only
(B) L3 only
(C) L1 and L2
(D) L2 and L3

20. Consider the following log sequence of two transactions on a bank account, with initial balance 12000, that transfer 2000 to a mortgage payment and then apply a 5% interest.
1. T1 start
2. T1 B old= 1200 new= 10000
3. T1 M old=0 new=2000
4. T1 commit
5. T2start
6. T2 B old= 10000 new= 10500
7. T2 commit

Suppose the database system crashes just before log record 7 is written. When the system is restarted, which one statement is true of the recovery procedure?
(A) We must redo log record 6 to set B to 10500
(B) We must undo log record 6 to set B to 10000 and then redo log records 2 and 3
(C) We need not redo log records 2 and 3 because transaction Ti has committed
(D) We can apply redo and undo operations in arbitrary order because they are idempotent.

Q.21 — Q.75 Carry Two Marks Each

21. For each element in a set of size 2n,an unbiased coin is tossed. The 2ncoin tosses are independent. An element is chosen if the corresponding coin toss were head. The probability that exactly n elements are chosen is:
(A) 2n

22. Let E, F and G be finite sets.
Let X=(EflF)-(FflG) and Y=(E_(EflG))_(E_F). Which one of the following is true?
(A) XcY
(B) XDY
(C) X=Y
(D) X-Y≠OandY-X≠O

23. F is an nxn real matrix. b is an nxi real vector. Suppose there are two nxivectors, u and vsuch that u v,and Fu = b,Fv = b. Which one of the following statements is false?
(A) Determinant of F is zero
(B) There are an infinite number of solutions to Fx = b
(C) There is an x Osuch that Fx = 0
(D) F must have two identical rows

24. integers S, and ,r(S) is the set of integers obtained by applying permutation rto each element of S?
(A) (n-AUBAHB
(B) (A2 +B2)n2
(C) n!
(D) A fl B2/[A U B

25. Let S = {1,2,3 ,m},m>3. Let X1 X be subsets of S each of size 3. Define a function f from S to the set of natural numbers as, f(i)is the number of sets X that contain the element I. That is f (I)={jIE x7[. Then f(i)is:
(A) 3m
(B) 3n
(C) 2m+1
(D) 2n+1

GATE | Electronics and Communication Question Paper 2006

2009-11-24T09:38:00.000-08:00

GATE | Electronics and Communication Question Paper 2006

Q.1 — Q.20 Carry One Mark Each.

1. The rank of the matrix
1 1 1
1 -1 0 is:
1 1 1
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3

2. VxVxP, wherePisa vector, is equal to
(A) PxVxP-V2P
(B) V2P+V(V.P)
(C) V2P+VxP
(D) v(v.P)-v2P

3. [[(vxP).ds, where P is a vector, is equal to
(A) 4P.dI
(B) VxVxP.dI
(C) 4VxP.dI
(D) [[[V.Pdv

4. A probability density function is of the form
p(x) = Ke aix1 XE
The value of K is
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) O.5cL
(D) x

5. A solution for the differential equation k(t)+2x(t) = 5(t) with initial condition x(0 —) = 0 is:
(A) e 2u(t)
(B) e2u(t)
(C) e u(t)
(D) &u(t)

6. A low-pass filter having a frequency response H(ja) = A(ai)edoes not produce any phase distortion if
(A) A(a) = Cai2,Ø(ai) = kai3
(B) A(a) = Cai2,Ø(ai) = ko.
(C) A(a)=Ca,Ø(a)=ka2
(D) A(a)=C, )=ka1

7. The values of voltage (V3) across a tunnel-diode corresponding to peak and valley currents are V, and V1 respectively-:- The range of tunnel-diode voltage VD for which the slope of its IVD characteristics is negative would be
(A) V3

8. The concentration of minority carriers in an extrinsic semiconductor under equilibrium is:
(A) directly proportional to the doping concentration
(B) inversely proportional to the doping concentration
(C) directly proportional to the intrinsic concentration
(D) inversely proportional to the intrinsic concentration

9. Under low level injection assumption, the injected minority carrier current for an extrinsic semiconductor is essentially the
(A) diffusion current
(B) drift current
(C) recombination current
(D) induced current

10. The phenomenon known as “Early Effect” in a bipolar transistor refers to a reduction of the effective base-width caused by
(A) electron-hole recombination at the base
(B) the reverse biasing of the base-collector junction
(C) the forward biasing of emitter-base junction
(D) the early removal of stored base charge during saturation-to-cutoff switching.

11. The input impedance (Z,)and the output impedance (Z0)of an ideal transconductance (voltage controlled current source) amplifier are
(A) Z,=0,Z0=0
(B) Z,=O,Z0=oo
(C) Z,=oo,Z0=O
(D) Z = 00, =

12. An n-channel depletion MOSFET has following two points on its ID VGS curve:
(i) VGS = 0 at ID = l2mA and
(ii) VGS = —6 Volts at ID =
Which of the following Q-points will give the highest trans-conductance gain for small signals?
(A) VGS = —6 Volts
(B) VGS = —3 Volts
(C) VGS = 0 Volts
(D) VGS = 3 Volts

13. The number of product terms in the minimized sum-of-product expression obtained through the following K-map is (where “d” denotes don’t care states)
1001
0d00
00d 1
1001
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

14. The Dirac delta function 8(t) is defined as
(A) 8(t)=1 t=O.
L° otherwise
100 t=O
(B) 8(t)=.
LO otherwise
(C) 8(t) = = . and [8(t)dt = 1
L otherwise
(D) 8(t)=4°° t=O and [8(t)dt=1
L otherwise

15. The open-loop transfer function of a unity-gain feedback control system is given by The gain margin of the system in dB is given by
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 20
(D)

16. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave propagating in the positive zdirection is given by
E=asin(at—flz)+asinot—flz+. The wave is
(A) linearly polarized in the z-direction
(B) elliptically polarized
(C) left-hand circularly polarized
(D) right-hand circularly polarized

17. A transmission line is feeding 1 Watt of power to a horn antenna having a gain of 10 dB. The antenna is matched to the transmission line. The total power radiated by the horn antenna into the free-space is:
(A) 10 Watts
(B) 1 Watt
(C) 0.1 Watt
(D) 0.01 Watt

18. The eigenvalues and the corresponding eigenvectors of a 2 x 2 matrix are given by Eigenvalue Eigenvector
A1=8
A2=4 v2=[hil
The matrix is:
(A) 6 2 L2 6
(B) 6 L6 4
(C) r L 2
(D) 8 L8 4

19. For the function of a complex variable W = lnZ (where, W=u+jv and Z=x+jy),the u=constant lines get mapped in Z-plane as
(A) set of radial straight lines
(B) set of concentric circles
(C) set of confocal hyperbolas
(D) set of confocal ellipses

20. Three companies, X, Y and Z supply computers to a university. The percentage of computers supplied by them and the probability of those being defective are tabulated below. Given that a computer is defective, the probability that it was supplied by Y is:
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.2
(C) 0.3
(D) 0.4

21. For the matrix [ jthe eigenvalue corresponding to the eigenvector is:
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8

22. For the differential equation + k2y = 0 the boundary conditions are Company °h of computers supplied Probability of being defective
X 60°h 0.01
Y 30°h 0.02
Z 10°h 0.03

(i) y=Oforx=Oand
(ii) y=Oforx=a
The form of non-zero solutions of y (where mvaries over all integers) are m,rx
(A) y=AmsIn
m a
m,rx
(B) y= AmCO5
m a
(C) Y=4m
mrx
(D) y=Amea

23. Consider the function f (t) having Laplace transform
2 2 Re[sl>O
S +a)0
The final value of f(t)would be:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) —1 f(oo) 1
(D)

24. As x is increased from — to 00, the function ex f(x)= 1 + ex
(A) monotonically increases
(B) monotonically decreases
(C) increases to a maximum value and then decreases
(D) decreases to a minimum value and then increases

25. The first and the last critical frequencies (singularities) of a driving point impedance function of a passive network having two kinds of elements, are a pole and a zero respectively. The above property will be satisfied by
(A) RL network only
(B) RC network only
(C) LC network only
(D) RC as well as RL networks

26. In the figure shown below, assume that all the capacitors are initially uncharged. If v,(t)=lOu(t) Volts,v0(t) is given by
(A) Se °°° Volts
(B) 8(1 — e °°°) Volts
(C) 8u(t) Volts
(D) 8 Volts

27. Consider two transfer functions G1(S)=s2+as+b and G2(S)=s2+as+b• Vo(t) The 3-dB bandwidths of their frequency responses are, respectively
(A) %Ja2 _4b,%Ja2 +4b
(B) %Ja2 + 4b, %Ja2 — 4b

28. A negative resistance Rneg is connected to a passive network N having driving point impedance Z1 (s)as shown below. For Z2 (s)to be positive real,
Z2(s)

(A) R I< ImZ1(ja),va neg — (D) R

29. In the circuit shown below, the switch was connected to position 1 at t < t =" 0,">
(A) v=—5
(B) v=–5

(D) —5

30. The majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor have an average drift velocity v in a direction perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. the electric field E induced due to Hall effect acts in the direction
(A) v x B
(B) Bxv
(C) along v
(D) opposite to v

31. A heavily doped n—type semiconductor has the following data: Hole-electron mobility ratio : 0.4
Doping concentration : 4.2x 108 atoms/m3
Intrinsic concentration : 1.5x 10 atoms/m3
The ratio of conductance of the n —type semiconductor to that of the intrinsic semiconductor of same material and at the same temperature is given by
(A) 0.00005
(B) 2,000
(C) 10,000
(D) 20,000

32. For the circuit shown below; assume that the zener diode is ideal with a breakdown voltage of 6 Volts. The waveform observed across R is:
(A)6V
(B)l2sinot R VR
(C)12V

33. A new Binary Coded Pentary (BCP) number system is proposed in which every digit of a base-5 number is represented by its corresponding 3-bit binary code.

For example, the base-5 number 24 will be represented by its BCP code 010100. In this numbering system, the BCP code 100010011001 corresponds to the
following number in base-5 system
(A) 423
(B) 1324
(C) 2201
(D) 4231

34. An I/O peripheral device shown in figure (b) below is to be interfaced to an 8085 microprocessor. To select the I/O device in the I/O address range D4 H — D7 H, its chip-select
(Cs) should be connected to the output of the decoder shown in figure (a) below:
I/O
Peripheral
(B) output 5
(C) output 2
(D) output 0

35. A 4-bit D/A converter is connected to a free-running 3-bit UP counter, as shown in the following figure. Which of the following waveforms will be observed at V3? the flip-flops are in clear state. After applying two clock pulses, the outputs of the full-adder should be Clock
(A) S=0 C0
(B) S=0 C0
(C) S=1 C0
(D) S=1 C0

36. Two D-flip-flops, as shown below, are to be connected as a synchronous counter that goes through the following Q1Q0 sequence
00 — 01 — 11 — 10 — 00 —
The inputs D0 and D1 respectively should be connected as

(A) Q1 and Q0
(B) Q0 and Q1
(C) Q1Q0 and Q1Q0
(D) and Q1Q0

37. Following is the segment of a 8085 assembly language program:
LXI SP, EFFF H
CALL 3000 H
3000 H : LXI H, 3CF4 H
PUSH PSW
SPHL
POP PSW
RET

On completion of RET execution, the contents of SP is:
(A) 3CFO H
(B) 3CF8 H
(C) 3FFD H
(D) EFFF H

38. The point P in the following figure is stuck-at-i. The output f will be

(A) ABC
(B) A
(C) ABC
(D) A

39. A signal m(t)with bandwidth 500 Hz is first multiplied by a signal g(t)where g(t) = (_i)’<
5(t_O.5xiO 4k)
The resulting signal is then passed through an ideal lowpass filter with bandwidth
i kHz. The output of the lowpass filter would be:
(A) 5(t)
(B) m(t)
(C) 0
(D) m(t)(t)

40. The minimum sampling frequency (in samples/sec) required to reconstruct the following signal from its samples without distortion.
(sin2,r1OOOt3 (sin2,r1OOOt2
x(t)=5i I i would be:
Tt }
(A) 2×103
(B) 4×103
(C) 6×103
(D) 8×103

41. A uniformly distributed random variable X with probability density function f (x) =±(u(x+5)-u(x-5))
Where u(.)is the unit step function is passed through a transformation given in the figure below. The probability density function of the transformed random variable Y would be
(A) (y)=(u(y+2.5)-u(y-2.5))
(B) i,(y)=O.5Y(y)+O.5Y(y—l)
(C) f(y)= O.255(y+2.5)+O.255(y —2.5)+O.55(y)
(D) f(y) = O.258(y+2.5)+O.258(y —2.5)+(u(y+2.5)—u(y —2.5))

42. A system with input x[nl and output y[n is given as y[n=sinrnx(n). The system is:
(A) linear, stable and invertible
(B) non-linear, stable and non-invertible
(C) linear, stable and non-invertible
(D) linear, unstable and invertible

43. The unit-step response of a system starting from rest is given by c(t)=1—e2 for t!=0
The transfer function of the system is:
(A)1 + 2s
(B) 2+s
(C) 2+s
(D) 2s 1 + 2s

44. The Nyquist plot of G(ja)H(ja)for a closed loop control system, passes through (—1, j0) point in the GH plane. The gain margin of the system in dB is equal to
(A) infinite
(B) greater than zero
(C) less than zero
(D) zero

45. The positive values of “K” and “a” so that the system oscillates at a frequency of 2 rad/sec respectively are shown in the figure below

(A) 1, 0.75
(B) 2, 0.75
(C) 1, 1
(D) 2, 2

46. The unit impulse response of a system is: For this system, the steady-state value of the output for unit step input is equal to

-1

(B) 0
(C) 1
(D)

47. A linear system is described by the following state equation k(t)=Ax(t)+Bu(t), A=[°
The state-transition matrix of the system is:
(A) rcost sint
L—sint cost
(B) r_cost sint
L—sint —cost
(C) r_cost —sint
L—sint cost
(D) rcost —sint
Lcost sint

48. The minimum step-size required for a Delta-Modulator operating at 32 K samples/sec to track the signal (here u (t) is the unit-step function)
x(t)=125t(u(t)_u(t_1))+(250_125t)(u(t_1)_u(t_2))
So that slope-overload is avoided, would be
(A) 2 10
(B) 2 8
(C) 2 6
(D) 2

49. A zero-mean white Gaussian noise is passed through an ideal lowpass filter of bandwidth 10 kHz. The output is then uniformly sampled with sampling period t = 0.03 msec. The samples so obtained would be
(A) correlated
(B) statistically independent
(C) uncorrelated
(D) orthogonal

50. A source generates three symbols with probabilities 0.25, 0.25, 0.50 at a rate of 3000 symbols per second. Assuming independent generation of symbols, the most efficient source encoder would have average bit rate as
(A) 6000 bits/sec
(B) 4500 bits/sec
(C) 3000 bits/sec
(D) 1500 bits/sec

51. The diagonal clipping in Amplitude Demodulation (using envelope detector) can be avoided if RC time-constant of the envelope detector satisfies the following condition, (here W is message bandwidth and a is carrier frequency both in rad/sec)
(A) RC<–w (B) RC>–w
(C) RC<—–o)c (D) RC>—-o)c

52. A message signal with bandwidth 10 kHz is Lower-Side Band SSB modulated with carrier frequency t = 1O Hz: The resulting signal is then passed through a Narrow-Band Frequency Modulator with carrier frequency 2 = iO Hz. The bandwidth of the output would be:
(A) 4×104 Hz
(B) 2×106 Hz
(C) 2×109 Hz
(D) 2×101° Hz

53. A medium of relative permittivity 2 = 2 forms an interface with free-space. A point source of electromagnetic energy is located in the medium at a depth of 1 meter from the interface. Due to the total internal reflection, the transmitted beam has a circular cross-section over the interface. The area of the beam cross- section at the interface is given by
(A) 2,rm2
(B) r2m2
(C) -m2
(D) rm2

54. A medium is divided into regions I and II about x = 0 plane, as shown in the figure below. An electromagnetic wave with electric field E1 = 4a + 3a + 5a is incident normally on the interface form region-I. The electric field E2 in region-Il at the interface is:
Region I Region II
= °P1 = = °P2 =
E1 E
xO
(A) E2=E1
(B) 4a +0.75a —1.25a
(C) 3a+3a+5a
(D) —3a + 3a + 5a

54. A rectangular waveguide having TE10 mode as dominant mode is having a cutoff frequency of 18-GHz for the TE30 mode. The inner broad-wall dimension of the rectangular waveguide is:
(A) 5— cms
(B) 5 cms
(C) 8 cms
(D) 10 cms

55. A mast antenna consisting of a 50 meter long vertical conductor operates over a perfectly conducting ground plane. It is base-fed at a frequency of 600 kHz. The radiation resistance of the antenna in Ohms is:
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 20,r2

Common Data Questions:
Common Data for Questions 71, 72, 73:
In the transistor amplifier circuit shown in the following parameters:
I3DC = 60, “BE = 0. 7V, hie — 00, hfe °° The capacitance Ccan be assumed to be infinite.
5.3K figure below, the transistor has the

In the figure above, the ground has been shown by the symbol V

71. Under the DC conditions, the collector-to-emitter voltage drop is:
(A) 4.8 Volts
(B) 5.3 Volts
(C) 6.0 Volts
(D) 6.6 Volts

72. If I3DC is increased by 10°h, the collector-to-emitter voltage drop

(A) increases by less than or equal to 10%
(B) decreases by less than or equal to 10%
(C) increases by more than 10%
(D) decreases by more than 10°h

73. The small-signal gain of the amplifier v/v is:
(A) -10
(B) -5.3
(C) 5.3
(D) 10

Common Data for Questions 74, 75: Let g(t) = p(t) * p(t), where * denotes convolution and p(t) = u(t)— u(t —1) with u (t) being the unit step function

74. The impulse response of filter matched to the signal s (t) = g (t) — —2) * g (t) is
given as:

(A) s(1—t)
(B) —s (1 — t) T EForum
(C) —s(t)
(D) s(t)

75. An Amplitude Modulated signal is given as
XAM (t) = 100(p(t)+0.5g(t))cosat in the interval 0 < t < 1. One set of possible values of the modulating signal and modulation index would be (A) t,O.5 (B) t,1.O (C) t,2.O (D) t2,0.5

Linked Answer Questions: Q.76 to Q.85 Carry Two Marks Each.
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 76 & 77:
A regulated power supply, shown in figure below, has an unregulated input (UR) of 15 Volts and generates a regulated output Use the component values shown in the figure.

In the figure above, the ground has been shown by the symbol V

76. The power dissipation across the transistor Qi shown in the figure is:
(A) 4.8 Watts
(B) 5.0 Watts
(C) 5.4 Watts
(D) 6.0 Watts

77. If the unregulated voltage increases by 20%, the power dissipation across the transistor Qi
(A) increases by 20°h
(B) increases by 50°h
(C) remains unchanged
(D) decreases by 20°h
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 & 79:
The following two questions refer to wide sense stationary stochastic processes

78. It is desired to generate a stochastic process (as voltage process) with power spectral density By driving a Linear-Time-Invariant system by zero mean white noise (as voltage process) with power spectral density being constant equal to 1. The system which can perform the desired task could be:
(A) first order lowpass R-L filter
(B)
(C)
(D)
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 & 81:
Consider the following Amplitude Modulated (AM) signal, where m

81. The AM signal gets added to a noise with Power Spectral Density S (f)given in the figure below. The ratio of average sideband power to mean noise power would be:
(A) 25
(B) 12.5
(C) 6.25
(D) 3.125
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 82 & 83:
Consider a unity-gain feedback control system whose open-loop transfer function is: first order highpass R-c filter tuned L-C filter series R-L-C filter

82. The value of “a” so that the system has a phase margin equal to -is approximately equal to
(A) 2.40
(B) 1.40
(C) 0.84
(D) 0.74

83. With the value of “a” set for a phase-margin of the value of unit-impulse response of the open-loop system at t = 1 second is equal to
(A) 3.40
(B) 2.40
(C) 1.84
(D) 1.74
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 84 & 85:

A 30-Volts battery with zero source resistance is connected to a coaxial line of characteristic impedance of 50 Ohms at t = 0 second terminated in an unknown resistive load. The line length is that it takes 400 ps for an electromagnetic wave to travel from source end to load end and vice-versa. At t = 400ps, the voltage at the load end is found to be 40 Volts.

84. The load resistance is
(A) 25 Ohms
(B) 50 Ohms
(C) 75 Ohms
(D) 100 Ohms

85. The steady-state current through the load resistance is:
(A) 1.2 Amps
(B) 0.3 Amps
(C) 0.6 Amps
(D) 0.4 Amps

IIT JEE 2010 Results

2009-04-21T04:23:00.000-07:00

IIT JEE 2009 Results

Declaration of Results May 25, 2009 Monday

askIITians has estimated the cut offs for IIT JEE 2009. You can view IIT JEE 2009 Cut Offs and get remark where you stand. The selected students may be prepare for IIT JEE 2009 counseling.

The actual cut off for IIT JEE 2009 will be declared 25 May 2009 and you can view result here for IIT JEE 2009 selected students(Marks and Rank).

Aggregate Total and Rank for IIT JEE 2008

Rank	Aggregate Marks
1	433
501	287
1001	263
1501	248
2001	236
2501	227
3001	219
3501	212
4001	206
4501	200
5001	195
5501	191
6001	186
6501	182
7903	172

IIT JEE 2010 Solutions Answers Question Paper Solutions

2009-04-17T13:59:00.000-07:00

This is to inform all the IIT JEE aspirants that some institutes are working hard and competing each other to release the IIT JEE 2009 Solutions.According to some students they found paper bit challenging this time.The Mathematics part was difficult from Physics and Chemistry.

The results will be anounced on May 25,2009

The expected cutoff score is 150

This year total question were decreased from 130 to 120 and the subjective type questions were more, which consumes much time of students.

I am giving you the links below to download the JEE 2009 solutions and question papers.The first institute i will refer you is Narayana, because they were the first to release these solutions/answers.

Note: These Question papers are only available to download and requires Adobe Reader to run.

If you don't have Adobe Reader then Click Here to download the latest version.

Narayana Institute, Delhi released the JEE 2009 solutions after 8:30 pm tonight on there website.

Download the whole solutions from here

Paper 1 Question Paper + Keys.

Paper 1 Answer Keys.

FIITJEE Institute released the JEE 2009 solutions on 12th april midnight on there website.You can download the answer keys from here :

www.fiitjee.com/test/iitsolution09.htm

Aakash Institute released the JEE 2009 solutions 12th april midnight on there website.You can download the answer keys from here :

Paper 1 Answer Codes.

Paper 2 Answer Codes.

OR you can use some other links below to download the solutions.

Also see: IIT JEE 2009 Solutions | IIT JEE 2009 Answer Keys

IIT JEE Cracking: Last Minute/day tips tricks prepare for IIT JEE 2009

2009-04-10T03:30:00.000-07:00

More than 3,60,000 students are expected to take IIT-JEE this year. The seat-students ratio for 2009 has improved to 1:49 when compared to the last years 1: 74. According to sources, the total number of seats for 2009 is 7200.

1. How many students are taking IIT-JEE this year?

More than 3,60,000 students are expected to take IIT-JEE this year. The seat-students ratio for 2009 has improved to 1:49 when compared to the last year’s 1: 74. According to sources, the total number of seats for 2009 is 7200.

2. With the paper format changed to MCQs, how should students approach the examination?

The papers will test the aptitude, comprehension and analytical ability of students. While tackling MCQs, the entire effort should be to maximize the number of correct answers. However, one has to keep in mind that reasoned-out guesses and correct answers carry marks, but blind guesses will lead to negative marking. So give some thought to each of the alternatives in the question. First attempt the questions you are confident of, next attempt those questions which you can logically workout or guess with reason. Black-box type questions, which you do not know anything about are to be left unanswered. Questions with no negative mark must be attempted.

3. What else is new in this year’s paper?

There will be two, three-hour (P+C+M combined) objective-type papers. Each paper will carry a varied basket of multiple-choice questions, like single-correct, multi-correct, reason-up, ‘match and mix’, assertion, passage-based, and numerical-based questions. The cut-off will be decided by summing the marks of the subject in both the papers. Each subject will thus have its own cut-off.
It is expected that two papers combined will be for 243 marks, with each subject carrying 81 marks.

4. Any last-minute tips students can follow?

Stay focussed and maintain a positive attitude

Develop speed. Refer to reputed mock-test series to build a winning exam temperament. Solve the past year’s IIT-JEE papers.

Remember it is quality of time spent and not the quantity alone. Hence give short breaks of 5 to 10 minutes every 1-2 hours of serious study. Completely relax when you take a break. Practice meditation to develop inner calm, poise, confidence and power of concentration.

Don’t overstress yourself. Five to six hours of sleep every night is a must, especially three-four days before IIT-JEE to keep yourself physically and mentally fit. While short naps may help to regain freshness, avoid over-sleeping during the day.

Finally, don’t be nervous if you find the paper tough since it is the relative performance that counts. Put your best analytical mind to work, and believe in your preparation.

IIT JEE 2010

2009-02-09T08:28:00.000-08:00

IIT JEE

Indian Institute of Technology, Joint Entrance Examination

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) conduct a Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) every year for the admission to its B-Tech and other courses offered at the IIT Mumbai, IIT Kanpur, IIT Delhi, IIT Chennai, IIT Kharakpur, IIT Guwahati, IIT Roorkee, IT Varanasi and ISM Dhanbad.

JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION 2009 (JEE-2009) Application for the examination can be submitted through on-line or offline. Information brochure for IIT JEE 2009 can be downloaded from here .

Off-line:

From any branch of bank candidate may buy application form with the information brochure by giving Rs. 500/- for ST, SC or female (White Color Envelop) and Rs.1000/- for all other candidates (Blue Color Envelop). This information brochure contains all the details related to JEE such as procedure of the application, examination center, syllabus, courses offered by various institutes, fee structure, counseling and other related information about JEE-2009.

On-line:

For the online application form, visit any related site and cautiously follow all the given instructions. This can be done from the IIT websites. There is no need to purchase the hard copy of the application form. However, this method requires a few things like print-out, fee and others to be sent to the IIT Madras postal address. Details can be seen here.

Examination schedule for JEE-2009:

Date	Time	Paper
12 April 2009	09.00-12.00 hrs	Paper - 1
	14.00-17.00 hrs	Paper - 2

Important dates for the IIT-JEE 2009 examination:

Sale at selected bank's branches and at all IITs	Nov. 19, 2008 . Dec. 24 ,2008
Online Application Date and Time	8:00 AM (IST) of 19th November 2008 to 5:00 PM (IST) of 24th December 2008
Last date for the submission of completed application	24 December 2008
Declaration of Results	25 May 2009

Syllabus for the Screening Test as well as for the Main Examination will be same. The detailed syllabus will be available in the Information Brochure.

List of the Banks for purchase of the Application Material:

IIT DELHI ZONE: Union Bank of India:

NEW-DELHI: Connaught Place, Karol Bagh (Arya Samaj Road), Nehru Place, Model Town-2, Rajouri Garden, S.D.A., Shahdara, Shalimar Bagh;
HARYANA: Faridabad, Gurgaon;
HIMACHAL PRADESH: Kangra, Mandi, Mehatpur, Shimla;
JAMMU AND KASHMIR: Jammu, Srinagar;
MADHYA PRADESH: Gwalior;
PUNJAB: Amritsar, Bhatinda, Jalandhar, Ludhiana, Moga, Paihankoi, Patiala;
UTTAR PRADESH: Agra, Gautam Budh Nagar, Ghaziabad, Mathura.

IIT Kanpur Zone: State Bank of India:
UTTAR PRADESH: Allahabad, Amethi, Ajamgarh, Ballia, Banda, Etawah, Faizabad, Gonda, Gorakhpur, Hardoi, Jhansi, Kanpur, Luck now, Raeibareli, Sitapur, Sultanpur;
UTTARAKHAND: Alrriora, Haldwani, Nainital, Pantnagar.

IIT Rookree Zone: Punjab National Bank:
CHANDIGARH
HARYANA: Ambala, Hissar, Kurukshetra, Panipat, Rohtak, Yamuna Nagar;
UTTARAKHAND: Dehradun, Hardwar, Roorkee, Srinagar, Garhwal Uttarkashi;
UTTAR PRADESH: Aligarh, Bareilly, Bijnor, Meerut, Moradabad, Muzaffarnagar, Saharanpur Varanasi.

Examination Pattern for JEE-2007:

JEE 2007 have two papers with three hours each. These papers contain questions from chemistry, physics and mathematics. Each paper has three subsections and contains the questions from three subjects without sectional time limit.

As compared to the last exam, in this new pattern 20 percent time is minimized from first examination to last examination. As per the last exam, if interval is of 2 hours then student will be in exam zone for 8 hours rather than 10 hours.

In new pattern papers will be reduced from 3 to 2 which also helps student in minimizing stress. Testing time remains as it is, students are trained for looking at problems. Read more about these IIT JEE new changes.

Reservation Of Seats in IIT JEE 2010

2009-02-09T08:27:00.000-08:00

Reservation Of Seats

SC/ST Candidates

15% and 7.5% seats in each course are reserved for candidates belonging to SC and ST categories, respectively. Candidates belonging to these categories are admitted on relaxed criteria (compared to GE/DS category candidates). In case all the reserved seats are not filled, a further relaxation is made in the admission criteria and a limited number of candidates are admitted to a Preparatory Course of one-year duration. This course attempts to prepare the students in Mathematics, Chemistry, and Physics. On successful completion of the course, the students will be offered direct admission to the undergraduate programmes in July 2006 against the unfilled reserved seats for JEE-2005. SC and ST candidates will be required to produce the original caste/tribe certificate issued by a competent authority (list given in Appendix-III) at the time of counselling, failing which they will not be considered for admission. Seats remaining vacant in these categories shall not be filled by candidates belonging to any other category.

Persons with Disabilities (PD)

3% seats are reserved for PD candidates (including leprosy-cured) as specified by the Government of India, who are otherwise fit to pursue the course and qualify JEE with relaxed norms relevant to this category. For any category of disability (viz., locomotor, visual, speech and hearing), benefit would be given to those candidates who have at least 40% permanent physical impairment in relation to a body part / system / extremity / extremities / whole body etc.

The candidates in this category will be required to be certified by a Medical Board. The Medical Board will decide the following:

Whether the candidate qualifies for the benefits under this category, and If the disability is likely to interfere in his/her studies.

The Medical Board duly constituted for this purpose shall meet at the time of counselling at IIT Delhi on June 27, 2005 at 3.00 p.m. Candidates, who are not certified by the Medical Board as PD, will not be counselled under this category.

Authorities Who May Issue Caste/Tribe Certificate

(Do not enclose the certificate or its copy with the application form. The certificate is to be produced in original at the time of counselling.)

SC/ST Candidates should submit certificate issued by District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ 1st Class Stipendary Magistrate/ City Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner/ Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate/ Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar / Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his/her family normally resides/ Administrator/ Secretary to Administrator/ Development Officer (Lakshadweep Island). Certificate issued by any other authority will be rejected.

How IITians help the poor crack IIT-JEE

2008-10-10T01:12:00.000-07:00

Patna: A poor waiter in Patna has become a celebrity of sorts after his son cracked the IIT entrance exam this year. The overjoyed man gives full credit to I-Desire - a small group of former IITians in Bihar who coach underprivileged kids and provide them study material.

Mani Bhusan Singh and his parents are getting privileged treatment in their neighbourhood after the 18-year-old cleared the Indian Institute of Technology Joint Entrance Examination (IIT-JEE).

"I am now one of the most sought after people in my workplace and also my neighbourhood," says a proud Lallan Singh, Mani Bhusan's father.

"I got to know about I-Desire through a friend. They agreed to help my son prepare for IIT-JEE. It wouldn't have been possible if I-Desire had not helped us by providing coaching, study material and a proper guide," said Lallan Singh, a waiter in Hotel Maurya here.

Lallan Singh, in his 40s, said his son could not appear for the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) exams in Class 10 and 12 due to financial constraints.

"My son wanted to appear for the CBSE exams but due to lack of money I forced him to appear for the Bihar Examination Board exams," said Lallan Singh, who lives in a one-room rented house in Mandiri, a densely populated lower middle class area.

There are 15 other students from underprivileged families here who have made it to IIT thanks to I-Desire.

The former IITians have been funding I-Desire, which provides free coaching for a year and counseling by IITians, explained Grijesh Jha, coordinator of I-Desire and a former student of IIT Kanpur.

"As many as 16 of the 35 boys selected by us cracked the IIT exam this year," Jha said.

I-Desire, a brainchild of Sushil Kumar, another IIT Kanpur product, was set up three years ago to provide help and support to IIT aspirants from the weaker sections of society in Bihar.

Kumar, who hails from Patna, is currently working for a multinational company in Chicago, said Jha.

The project was started in memory of murdered engineer Satyendra Dubey, who blew the whistle on corruption on the national highways project in Bihar.

IIT engineer Dubey, who worked on the Bihar section of the national highways project in Gaya district, was allegedly killed for writing to the Prime Minister's Office on corruption in the project. He was shot dead in Gaya town, about 100 km from Patna, on Nov 27, 2003. (IANS)

WORK POWER ENERGY QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR CLASS XI CBSE

2008-09-23T21:40:00.000-07:00

One mark questions with answers

Q1. If a body of mass 2kg. is at restand is hit by a mass of 4kg. moving with 3m/s, find fraction of the momentumretained by the moving body assuming the collision to be elastic and head-on.

Ans1. If n = m₂/m₁
(n - 1)/(1 + n) is the fraction of the momentum retained by the moving body so
(n - 1)/(1 + n) = (2 - 1)/(1 + 2) = 1/3.

Q2. If mass of the moving body ismuch greater than the mass of the body at rest than what is the approximatevilocity of the moving body after head-on collision?

Ans2. When the moving mass is muchgreater than the mass at rest then after the collision the heavier mass keepson moving with the same velocity and in the same direction.

Q3. At what point the potentialenergy of a body is taken to be zero?

Ans3. The potential energy of the bodyat the surface of the earth is taken to be zero (Potential energy = mgh, whereh is the height of the body from the surface.).

Q4. Does the work done on a body by aforce depend upon the path followed by it?

Ans4. May or may not be. If the force isconservative then it does not depend but if it is non-conservative (friction)then it depends.

Q5. If a body hits the ground from aheight h₁ and rebounds to a height h₂ after havinginelastic collision with the ground then what is the coefficient ofrestitution?

Ans5. e = Ö(h₂/h₁)

Q6. A body hits the ground with 50m/s velocity and has inelastic collision with the ground then with whatvelocity it will rebound if the coefficient of restitution is 0.2.

Ans6. Coefficient of restitution, e = v₂/v₁where v₁ is the velocity with which the body hits the ground and v₂is the velocity of rebound.
e = 0.2 = v₂/50, so v₂ = 10 m/sec.

Q7. A body at rest explodes in threefragments. Is it possible that two equal parts move in mutually perpendiculardirections with the same velocity and third mass moves midway between the two?

Ans7. No, it is not possible becausemomentum before the explosion is zero and after it also the momentum must bethe same. In the given situation the third particle must go in a directionopposite to the resultant of first two parts.

Q8. If the speed of a moving vehicleis increased by 200% then how much should be the change in the retarding forceto stop the vehicle over half the previous distance?

Ans8. (1/2)mv² = F.S where Fis the retarding force and S is the distance over which the vehicle comes torest. When 'v' is increased by 200% then K.E. increases by 800%. As S is halvedthen F should be made 16 times.

Q9. If 20 Joules of work is done in compressinga spring from 0 cm to 6 cm then find the work done in compressing the same from3cm to 6 cm.

Ans9. W.D = (1/2) K(x₂²- x₁²). This is the work done when the spring iscompressed from x₁ to x₂.
20 = (1/2)K (36 - 0)
W = (1/2)K (36 - 9)
Solving the above equations we get W = 15 J.

Two mark questions with answers

Q1. A ball is dropped from rest at aheight of 20m. If it loses 30% of its kinetic energy on striking the ground,what is the height to which it bounces? How do you account for this loss inkinetic energy?

Ans1. Suppose the ball acquires avelocity 'v' after falling through a height of 20m.
Because the ball is dropped from rest, hence u = 0.
Hence, v² = u² + 2as
= 0 + (2 x 10 x 20) = 400
So, v = 20 m/s
Kinetic energy of the ball just before hiting the ground
= (1/2)mv² = (1/2)m(400) = 200m Joule
Because the ball loses 30% of the kinetic energy on striking the ground, hencekinetic energy retained by the ball after striking the ground = 70% of 200m J
= 140m J
The energy loss is due to the inelastic collision with the ground.

Q2. Why is no energy being consumedin planetary motion.

Ans2. A planet is a heavenly body whichrevolves round the star (the sun). The force which is responsible for circularmotion, is called centripetal force. The direction of the centripetal force isalways towards the centre. Thus, the angle between force F and displacement Sis q = 90^o at every point.Work done in moving planet, W = F.S = FSCosq = FS Cos90^o.So, W = 0. Hence,no energyis being consumed in planetary motion.

Q3. How will you justify thathydro-electric power plant is an illustration of law of conservation of energy?

Ans3. A hydroelectric power-plant isused in generating electric energy (Power).The potential energy of water storedat a height is converted into K.E. when water is made to rush down. This fallof water is used to rotate the turbine and the coil and armature of generatoris rotated and electricity is produced . Thus, the K.E. of the fall of water isconverted into electrical form of energy. Hence the hydroelectric power-plantis an example of law of conservation of energy.

Q4. If a body is dropped from aheight of 40m then after 3 inelastic collisions with the ground to which heightthe body will rise? (given: Coefficient of restitution = 0.5)

Ans4. If the body is dropped from aheight of 'H' and 'e' is the coefficient of restitution then after 'n'inelastic collisions with the ground the body rises to a height 'h' given by
h = H.e²ⁿ.
h = 40 x (1/2)^{2 x 3}= 40 x (1/2⁶) = 40/64 = 0.625 m

Q5. A truck and a car are moving withthe same K.E. on a straight line road. If their engines are made off at thesame time, which one of them will stop at a lesser distance.

Ans5. Given : (1/2)m₁v₁²= (1/2)m₂v₂² .............(i)
If force of brakes be the same then m₁a₁ = m₂a₂..........(ii)
If truck stops over a distance S₁ then v₁² =2a₁S₁ ........(iii)
If car stops over a distance S₂ then v₂² = 2a₂S₂.........(iv)
From (i) and (ii)
(1/2)m₁v₁² = (1/2)m₂v₂²...........(v)
From (ii) and (v)
v₁²/a₁ = v₂²/a₂............(vi)
From (iii), (iv) and (vi)
2a₁S₁/a₁ = 2a₂S₂/a₂.
S₁ = S₂
Hence distances covered S₁ and S₂ are equal.

Q6. The power of a pump motor is 4KW. How much water in kg/minute can it raise a height of 20m? (g = 10 m/s²)

Ans6. Given power of motor P = 4KW =4000 W
If mass of water raised in one second = m kg.
Total work done in lifting water,W = mgh
Power P = W/t, but t = 1 minute = 60 sec.
4000 = mgh/60
4000 = (m x 10 x 20)/60
m = 1200 kg.

Q7. A rod of length 3m is suspendedvertically from a fixed point. It is given an angular displacement of 60^oin the vertical plane. If its mass per unit length is 2 kg then find the workdone?

Ans7. Let 'm' be the mass of the rod and'l' be its length then
m = 2 x 3 = 6 kg
If the rod is displaced through an angle qthen the work done on it, W = mg(l/2)(1 - Cosq).
The effective length of the rod is taken to be (l/2) because in uniformdistribution of mass the centre of mass is at the geometric centre so
W = 6 x 10 x (3/2)(1 - Cos60) =45 J.

Three mark questions with answers

Q1. When a mass m₂is at rest and mass m₁ moving with velocity u₁ hits itelastically, show that the fraction of the momentum transferred to the mass atrest is 2n/(1 + n) where n is ratio of the masses.

Ans1. v₁ = (m₁ -m₂)u₁/(m₁ + m₂).
v₂ = 2m₁u₁/(m₁ + m₂).
This is from the theory of conservation of momentum.
Momentum of the mass m₂ after collision,
P₂ = m₂v₂ = (2m₁m₂u₁)/(m₁+ m₂)
Fraction of momentum transferred to m₂.
= (2m₁m₂u₁)/(m₁ + m₂)m₁u₁= 2m₂/(m₁ + m₂)
= 2n/(1 + n) ....[because m₂/m₁ = n]

Q2. Is it possible for work to bepositive negative or zero? "Explain with example.

Ans2. Work is a scalar quantity which isgiven by the scalar product of the force applied F and the displacement S movedby body i.e.
W = F.S,
W = FS Cos q ..........(1).
If q = 0. The work is maximum.
It remains +ve for the angle q between 0^oto 90^o

or, q lying between 270^o and360^o i.e., if the displacement is in a directionoppisite to which the force is applied.

Thus work is +ve if Cos q is +ve. The work done will be -veif Cosq is -ve i.e. q lies between 90^o to 270^o.
If q = 90^o then Cos 90^o= 0.
Hence work done W = FS Cos 90^o = 0.
Thus, W may be +ve, -ve or zero

Q3. The bob of a simple pendulum isreleased from a horizontal position. If the length of the pendulum is 2m, whatis the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point? Given that itdissipates 10% of its initial energy against air resistance?

Ans3. Gravitational potential energy atthe highest position
= mg x 2 Joules = 2mg Joules
Kinetic energy at lowest position
= Potential energy at the highest position - the energy dissipitated againstair resistance or friction
= [mg x 2 - (10/100) x mg x2] Joule
= mg x 18/10 J
\ (1/2)mv² = mg x18/10
or, v = 1.9 ms^-1.

Q4. Give the various gravitationalunits of work. Give their relations also.

Ans4. We know that the physical workdone is given by
W = FS
(1) In S.I system,
If F = 1 kg weight or 1 kg force and S = 1m then,
W = (1 kg wt)(1m) = 1 kg m ...............(i).
Hence, one kgm is the gravitational unit of work in S.I (M.K.S) system and isdefined as the amount of work done if 1 kg force displaces a body through 1m inthe direction of the applied force.
(2) In C.G.S system,
F = 1 gmwt and S = 1cm,
W = (1 gm wt) (1 cm) = 1 gm cm ..................(ii).
Hence, one gm cm is the gravitational unit of work and is defined as the amountof work done, if 1 gm force displaces a body through 1 cm in the direction ofthe applied force.
1 gm cm = 980 ergs.
NOTE: 1 kg m = 9.8 Joules.

Q5. What is 1 e.v (electron volt)?Give its values in Joules. Give values of 1 MeV and 1 BeV also.

Ans5. One electron volt is the unit ofenergy in Atomic and Nuclear Physics.
One electron volt is the energy acquired by one elctron in moving it betweentwo point having a P.D of 1V.
Thus, 1eV = (1.6 x 10^-19) C x1J/C = 1.6 x 10^-19 Joules.
NOTE: The other practical units used are
1 Million electron volt = 1 MeV = 10⁶ eV, 1 MeV = 10⁶ x1.6 x 10^-19 J, 1 MeV = 1.6 x10^-13 Joules and
1 Billion eV = 10⁹ eV, 1 BeV = 1.6 x 10^-10joules.

Q6. When water is flowing through apipe then its velocity changes by 5%, find the change in the power of water?

Ans6. Power = Force xVelocity = Rate of change of momentum x velocity ={(mass/time) x velocity} xvelocity = {(adv) x v} x v =adv³ where 'a' is area of cross section, 'd' is the density of waterand 'v' is the velocity of flow of water.
Therefore, Power of water is directly proportional to the cube of velocity ofwater so let P = Kv³ (k is a constant and is equal to 'ad'.)Taking log on both sides
log P = 3log v + log k
Differentiating on both sides
DP/P = 3.Dv/v
percentage change in power, DP/P x100 = 3 x 5%
= 15%.

Q7. The kinetic energy of rushing outwater from a dam is used in rotating a turbine. The pipe through which water isrushing is 2.4 meters and its speed is 12 m/sec. Assuming that whole of kineticenergy of the water is used in rotating the turbine, calculate the currentproduced if efficiency of the dynamo is 60% and the station transmits power at240 kV. Density of water = 10³ kg/m³.

Ans7. Given that
r = radius of pipe = 1.2m, average speed of water v = 12 m/s
V = 240 kV = 240 x 10³ volt, density ofwater p = 10³ kg/m³.
Now, kinetic energy of rushing water per second i.e.
Power P = (1/2)(mass flowing per sec) x v²
= (1/2)pr²(l/t) rv²
= (1/2)pr² rv³
= (1/2) x 3.14 x (1.2)²x 10³ x (12)³watt
= 3.9 x 10⁶ watt
\ Current in the transmissioncables
current = output power/voltage
= (60% of power P)/(240 x 1000)
= [(60/100) x 3.9 x 10⁶]/(240x 1000) = 9.75 amp.

Five mark questions with answers

Q1. A vehicle of mass m isaccelerated from rest when a constant power P is supplied by its engine; showthat :
(a) The velocity is given as a function of time by
v = (2Pt/m)^1/2
(b) The position is given as a function of time by
s = (8P/9m)^1/2t^3/2.
(c) What is the shape of the graph between velocity and mass of the vehicle ifother factors remain same?
(d) What is the shape of the graph between displacement and power?

Ans1. (a) Given that Power = Fv = P =constant
i.e., m x (dv/dt) x v =P [as F = ma = m x (dv/dt)]
After rearranging and integrating on both sides
òv dv = ò(P/m) x dt
(v²/2) = (P/m) x t + C₁
Now as initially the body is at rest, i.e., v = 0 at t = 0, so C₁= 0.
v = (2Pt/m)^1/2 ............(1)
(b) By definition v = (ds/dt),
Using eq (1) above,
ds/dt = (2Pt/m)^1/2
On integration we get
òds = ò(2Pt/m)^1/2dt
s = (2P/m)^1/2 x (2/3) xt^3/2 + C₂.
Now, as at t = 0, s = 0, so, C₂ = 0
s = (8P/9m)^1/2 t^3/2.
(c)

(d)

Q2. A simple pendulum of mass m and lengthl swings back and forth up to a maximum angle q₀ with the vertical. When at an angle q, what is its (a) potential energy, (b) kinetic energy, (c) speed, and(d) tension?

Ans2.

Taking the reference level at the lowest point R, we have
h_P = l - l cos q₀ = l(1 - cos q₀)
h_Q = l - l cos q = l(1 - cos q)
So (a) potential energy at Q relative to R will be
PE = mgh_Q
PE = mgl(1 - cos q) .........(a)
(b) PE at P = mgh_P = mgl(1 - cos q₀)
KE at P = 1/2 x mv² = 0
so, total mechanical energy at P = mgl(1 - cos q₀) .......(i)
Now, if K_Q is the KE at Q,
then using eq. (i)
mechanical energy at Q = K_Q + mgl(1 - cos q) ..........(ii)
But by conservation of mechanical energy between P and Q
K_Q + mgl(1 - cos q) = mgl(1 -cos q₀)
i.e., K_Q = mgl(cos q- cos q₀) ........(b)
(c) If v is the speed at point Q, from eq. (b)
1/2 x mv² = mgl(cos q - cos q₀)
i.e., v = .
(d) If 'E' is the energy at Ðq, then itis equal to mgl(1 - Cosq) + (1/2)mv².
Since the energy remains constant throughout, E = E_o.
mgl(1 - Cosq) + (1/2)mv² = mgl(1 -Cosq_o)
or mv² = 2mgl(Cosq - Cosq_o)
Therefore, tension 'T' at q would begiven by
T = mv²/l + mgCosq = mg Cosq + 2mg(Cosq- Cosq_o)
or T = 3mgCosq - 2 mgCosq_o.

Q3.What do youmean by work in the language of physics? Give its absolute and gravitationalunits. Give two illustrations of zero work, negative work and positive work.

Ans.(Try yourself).

Q4.How will youfind work done by a variable force mathematically and graphically?

Ans.(Try yourself).

Q5.What do youmean by conservative and non-conservative forces? Give their importantproperties.

Ans.(Try yourself).

Q6.What do youmean by gravitational potential energy? Show that gravitational potentialenergy is independent of the path followed.

Ans.(Try yourself).

Q7.If a body iskept on the top of a rough inclined plane, find the expression for
(i) work done in bringing it down to the bottom of the plane with constantvelocity
(ii) work done in moving it up the plane with constant acceleration
(iii) work done in moving it down the plane with constant acceleration.

Ans.(Try yourself)

IIT JEE Fee Structure 2010

2008-09-18T08:41:00.001-07:00

Fee Structure

The present fee structure (in Indian rupees) of different institutes is given in the tables below as a guideline, however, the exact fee structure would be provided at the time of counselling. The tuition fee per semester for foreign students is USD 2000 (non-SAARC countries)/USD 1000 (SAARC countries). Students who have PIO (Person of Indian Origin) and OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) status would be treated at par with Indian students so far as fee structure is concerned.

INDIAN INSTITUTES OF TECHNOLOGY
	Bombay	Delhi	Guwahati	Kanpur	Kharagpur	Madras	Roorkee
One time payment	1525	2500	2150	2150	2300	1750	2890
Payable every semester	29450 (4450)	27035 (2035)	38450 (3450)	31192 (6192)	27100 (2100)	28150 (3150)	32250 (7250)
Refundable caution deposit	3000	4000	4500	4000	4000	2000	4000
Medical insurance premium	126	450			696	468	280
Total fees payable at the time of admission	34101 (9101)	33985 (8985)	35100 (10100)	37342 (12342)	34096 (9096)	32368 (7368)	39420 (14420)

	IT-BHU, Varanasi	ISMU, Dhanbad
One time payment	3325	4200
Payable every odd semester	13910	19550
Payable every even semester	13910	17000
Refundable caution deposit	4000	5000
Total fees payable at the time of admission	21235	28750

IIT JEE - Reservation of Seats 2010

2008-09-18T08:38:00.000-07:00

RESERVATION OF SEATS

SC/ST Candidates

For candidates belonging to the SC and ST categories, respectively 15% and 7.5% seats are reserved in each program. Candidates belonging to these categories are admitted on the basis of a relaxed criteria (compared to the general (GE) category candidates). In case all the reserved seats are not filled, a limited number of candidates are admitted to a Preparatory Course of one-year duration on the basis of a further relaxation of the qualifying criteria. This course attempts to prepare the students in Physics, Mathematics, and Chemistry. On successful completion of the course, the students will be offered direct admission to the undergraduate programs in July 2009 against the unfilled reserved seats for JEE-2008.

SC and ST candidates will be required to produce the original caste/tribe certificate issued by a competent authority in the prescribed format (given in Appendix–II). These documents must be produced at the time of counselling, failing which they will not be considered for admission. Seats remaining vacant in these categories shall not be filled by candidates belonging to any other category.

Persons with Disability (PD)

For PD (including leprosy-cured) candidates, who are otherwise fit to pursue the course, and qualify JEE with relaxed norms relevant to this category, 3% seats are reserved as specified by the Government of India. For any category of disability (viz., locomotor, visual, speech, and/or hearing), benefit would be given to those candidates who have at least 40% permanent physical impairment in relation to a body part / system / extremity / extremities / whole body, etc.

The candidates in this category will be required to be certified by a Medical Board. The Medical Board will decide the following:

whether the candidate qualifies for the benefits under this category, and
if the disability is likely to interfere in his/her studies.

The Medical Board duly constituted for this purpose shall meet at the time of counselling at IIT Delhi on June 17, 2008. Candidates, who are not certified by the Medical Board as belonging to the PD category, will not be counselled under this category. The decision of the Medical Board shall be final.

Note: Reservation for OBC candidates, if any, would be communicated as and when the Government order for the same is issued.

Crack IIT-JEE with confidenceCrack IIT-JEE with confidence

2008-09-06T09:21:00.001-07:00

Proper planning and strong determination can take you to your goal

The all important IIT-JEE will be held on April 13. So students have less than a week to take, what they consider an important test of their career. Here are a few tips from the experts to overcome tensions on the examination day and perform better in the exam.

Have a healthy breakfast. Don’t take excessive food. Drink lots of water. Whenever you are tired drink energy drinks. Avoid oily and spicy food. Check your centre location. Ensure that you have taken the admit card plus the required stationeries. Reach the test centre at least half an hour before the exam. Carry water bottle.

It’s all in the mind

Give several time mental pep up talk that “I can do much better”. This day is meant for me and I am born to succeed. Enter the examination hall in a positive mood to crack the test.

Re-check your stationeries and synchronise your wristwatch with the centre’s clock. Fill up all the particulars carefully. Read the instructions carefully.

Don’t get panic if others start attempting. Never make any conclusion by looking at others. If there is any mistake in your OMR, address to it immediately. Don’t make any conclusions about the paper in the exam hall.

Read instructions carefully. Scan the problems immediately. Make a rough estimate of easy, moderate and most difficult problems. Begin with the easier problems. If easier one is beyond your capacity, don’t get nervous, just go ahead. For moderate problems, try to derive relations. These may award some marks. Don’t go for complicated calculation. Complicated calculation means wrong solution. Keep attempting the easy/scoring ones first. Single choice options are going to be mark fetching ones. Try to attempt as much as possible. Don’t take any guess work.

One at a time

Concentrate on one question at a time. Never submit the paper before time. If you have some time in your hand, better to revise the solution. Use the rough space wisely so that you can cross verify at any time. Use the value of constants given in the paper in solving a numerical. If the value is not mentioned, use the one you remember. Carry out all rough work only in the space given in the paper. Attempting to solve all questions in haste increases the chances of error. It is better to solve slightly fewer questions faultlessly.

While attempting questions, go on segregating them by putting some identification mark. These questions are from topics that you have prepared.

After the first exam, don’t discuss the paper with anyone. Try to understand the difference between facts and fiction. What ever you have done is good.

Tell yourself before the second paper that you are going to do this much better. Don’t take too much time on attempting a question. If some concepts are not at all known to you, immediately come out of it.

Proper planning, strong determination and self confidence can take you to your goal.

Cracking IITJEE Exam 2010

2008-09-06T09:18:00.000-07:00

What the coaching centres are churning out are zombies who will find it extremely difficult to adjust to life on an IIT campus and beyond

NOW THAT the hype regarding the innocuous changes made in the IIT entrance tests have died down, it's time to take a serious look at what getting admitted into the IITs is all about. All that the IITs did was to insist that any student getting admitted into the institutes should have secured at least 60 per cent marks in the board exams.

It's not a very big deal, considering that students have high scoring subjects such as Maths, Physics, Chemistry and Computers in their 12th class and that if they cannot score these marks in the relatively easier boards, they will find it simply impossible to clear even the first semester at any IIT.

Secondly, they felt that a student can appear for the entrance exams on not more than two occasions — and rightly so — for it's a shame to waste academic years merely to get into the IITs. It would be understandable if there were no other engineering institutes available in the country; but with hundreds of very good engineering colleges including the NITs, it seems a shame to waste years of mindless studying just to crack the IIT entrance tests.

Thirdly, the preliminary exams were scrapped and only the six hour exam, testing the student's skills in Maths, Physics and Chemistry, was retained. Fair enough, for an aspirant may have been unwell on the day of the preliminary exam and hence would have been needlessly barred from appearing for the final exams, thereby denying him/her a chance of participating in the examination process. Finally, if a student has been admitted into any course at an IIT, he/she will not be allowed to appear for the entrance test again with a view to improving his ranking.

And yet for these seemingly justified changes in the Entrance Exam procedures, there were days of protests and demonstrations and road blockages, culminating in a dharna and audience with the President. As a result, the changes have been deferred for a year.

Now, why is there such a ruckus created against these simple changes? First, it's not the students who are creating the commotion — for they are far too young and inexperienced in such matters — but the parents of the aspirants, the media, society and the unscrupulous coaching centres. Getting admitted into any IIT, into any stream, seems to give the student the proverbial Midas touch. He is automatically branded as a huge success — no matter how he does in the four years spent in the institute and with his life later on. If merely getting admitted into the IITs means pots of gold, then every aspirant and their parents should necessarily read the book Five Point Someone... by Chetan Bhagat which gives a first hand account of life within the campus and how strenuous it is for the four years spent there, for a very large number of students.

But how do students and their parents know of all this — most of them are not alumni and have no knowledge of life within the institutes. All that they are fed on are the media reports of the golden boys of these institutes. Well for every Nandan Nilekani, Rajat Gupta and Narayana Murthy, there are literally hundreds of IIT engineers leading ordinary lives in ordinary jobs. On the other hand, there are hundreds of non IITians from other engineering institutes who are highly successful but do we know much about them?

Coaching centres

And finally the coaching centres — well they are necessary evils. But the pressure put by some of them on the aspirants to clear the exams is tremendous. There are a number of centres which prescribe weird rules for the students — no movies, no TV, no entertainment and horror of horrors: no regular schooling; only studying and more studying. What they are churning out are zombies, boys and girls, who will find it extremely difficult to adjust to life on an IIT campus and beyond.

For the two or more years spent at these coaching institutes, students will be leading a life like a frog in a well, a narrowed down life or no life at all beyond studying. What is required is to teach the aspirants the basics of science and to ensure that all the concepts are clear — rather than merely studying without comprehending. Any aspirant who studies all the time, to the exclusion of all things else, is sure to be a misfit at these institutes.

If an aspirant is unable to clear the 12th class exam, how is he/she expected to cope with the numerous tests and exams conducted by the IITs each year. I know for sure that IIT Chennai has three sets of exams each semester, a quiz, a mid semester and an end semester exam, which makes it six sets of exams each year; so 24 sets at the end of four years. Now multiply this by the number of papers a student has and the sum total amounts to a staggering 140+ papers at the end of the 4th year.

The coaching centres naturally want a high success rate, to enhance the prestige of the institute, which is directly co-related to their increase in profits. But it is the students and their parents who should be wary and enter into the fray of the IITJEE with their eyes wide open.

Download PowerPoint Presentations on various Topics in Organic Chemistry.

2008-09-06T08:47:00.000-07:00

I thought posting them all together would be much better than posting each one separately. :) These are powerpoint presentations that are designed with the help of Animations to make visualizing Organic Chemistry much easier.

Alkane
Structure and Functional Group
IUPAC Naming
Alkene and Alkynes I
Alkyl Halide
Acid-Base Concept
Alcohol and Ether
Alcohol Preparation
Alkene and Alkyne Part II
Amines
Aromatic
Carbohydrates [Optional]
Carbon Compounds and Chemical Bonds
Carboxylic Acid and Derivatives
Claisen Condensation
Conjugated Unsaturated
Lipids [Optional]
Neucleophilic Addition
Neucleophilic Addition II
Nucleic Acid [Optional]
Neucleophilic Substitution of Aromatic
Protiens [Optional]
Radical Reactions
Reactions of Aromatic Compounds

IIT JEE 2010

Poor man’s IIT coach in Time’s Best of Asia list

CORRECTIVE MEASURES FOR THE ERRORS ENCOUNTERED IN JEE-2010

Kerala Entrance Result 2010 : Rank List

The Results are announced on 17 May 2010 at 10:30 AM

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MAT Examination Pattern and Syllabus

MAT Examination Pattern and Syllabus

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GATE Instrumentation Engineering (IE) Solved Paper 2010

GATE Mechanical Engineering (ME) Question Paper 2010

IIT JEE Study Plan | Chemistry

IIT JEE Study Plan of Chemistry

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IIT JEE 2010 Study Plan | Physics

IIT JEE Last Year Question Papers | Previous Years

IIT JEE 2010 Exam: Aptitude Test Syllabus

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GATE: Computer Science (CS) Question Paper Year 2006

GATE | Electronics and Communication Question Paper 2006

GATE | Electronics and Communication Question Paper 2006

IIT JEE 2010 Results

IIT JEE 2010 Solutions Answers Question Paper Solutions

IIT JEE Cracking: Last Minute/day tips tricks prepare for IIT JEE 2009

IIT JEE 2010

IIT JEE

Reservation Of Seats in IIT JEE 2010

Reservation Of Seats

How IITians help the poor crack IIT-JEE

WORK POWER ENERGY QUESTIONS & ANSWERS FOR CLASS XI CBSE

WAVE MOTION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR CLASS XI

IIT JEE Fee Structure 2010

IIT JEE - Reservation of Seats 2010

Crack IIT-JEE with confidenceCrack IIT-JEE with confidence

Cracking IITJEE Exam 2010

Download PowerPoint Presentations on various Topics in Organic Chemistry.

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